In light of COVID, Paul had the good idea to repost this piece from Steve:
"The four horsemen of the Apocalypse" (Steve Hays)
In light of COVID, Paul had the good idea to repost this piece from Steve:
"The four horsemen of the Apocalypse" (Steve Hays)
I recently saw some more tributes to Steve Hays that I thought would be worth linking to. However some are on Facebook so they might not be accessible to everyone. Please feel free to post more in the comments if there are others worth reading.
Bernstein, C & Manata, P. "Moral Responsibility and the Wrongness of Abortion" in The Journal of Medicine and Philosophy: A Forum for Bioethics and Philosophy of Medicine, Volume 44, Issue 2, 16 March 2019, pp 243–262.
Maul Panata: They don't make movies like The Godfather (1&2) anymore. This is one reason why men's testosterone levels have dropped since the 1970s.
VS: I thought it was because more and more guys are being raised by single mothers. But it could be movies!
Maul Panata: I only said it's one reason.
VS: Maybe they're connected in some way. Like, men started leaving their families because they were too intimidated by the first two Godfather movies y/n
Maul Panata: Empirical claim needs empirical evidence bro. Do the study. I'm open [smile emoticon]
John Bugay: Do you have studies that show a direct correlation between "movies like The Godfather 1&2" (that's a very vague statement to begin with) and "men's testosterone levels"?
Maul Panata: Yes, the study NASA did on me.
VS: They can see Paul Manata's muscles from space
We can formulate some of the philosophical issues that are involved here by distinguishing two pairs of questions. These are:
A) “What do we know? What is the extent of our knowledge?”
B) “How are we to decide whether we know? What are the criteria of
knowledge?”
There are people—philosophers—who think that they do have an answer to B and that, given their answer to B, they can then figure out their answer to A. And there are other people—other philosophers—who have it the other way around: they think that they have an answer to A and that, given their answer to A, they can then figure out the answer to B.
I suggest, for the moment, we use the expressions “methodists” and “particularists.” By “methodists,” I mean...those who think they have an answer to B, and who then, in terms of it, work out their answer to A. By “particularists” I mean those who have it the other way around.
http://www.oswego.edu/~dhoracek/220/Chisholm-criterion.pdf
Steve says, this “position dissolves the perennial dilemma between determinism and freedom of choice” because…
On the face of it, his position dissolves the perennial dilemma between determinism and freedom of choice.
The first problem is that, as Steve puts things, it places too much weight on alternative possibilities (APs) as securing freedom. A whole lot more will need to be said to secure free will (or free choice). For starters, there’s sourcehood questions. There’s epistemic and control questions.
The point is ambiguous. Is it that determinism could be true at two worlds, W1 and W2, and I do otherwise in W1 than I do in W2? Or is it that determinism is true at W1 and W2, and W1 and W2 share the same determining conditions, and I do otherwise in W1 than I do in W2?
Suppose for the moment that our set of reasons at a given time determines our actions.
...to make recourse to the ontologically costly many-worlds hypothesis.
So if this is what Steve means, I agree that there’s no problem with doing otherwise in worlds where determinism is true of both.
Since there are many ways to determine something (see James Anderson here, for example), let me just use C for whatever set of “prior” (logical, temporal, timeless decrees of God, doesn’t matter for now) conditions are the determining conditions. Now, to see if we can do otherwise in W1 and W2, we hold C fixed for each of W1 and W2. Perhaps C should be understood according to the thesis of causal determinism. By definition, then, given the laws L and a proposition p specifying the way things are at time t, where t is a time in the “remote past,” all future events e (such that e > t) are entailed by L & p. On this view, if W and W1 share the same laws and proposition about the remote past, they share all events. So how do I do otherwise on this view?
Or, perhaps one might think that theological determinism is true. How might we understand that notion? Again, we might cite James Anderson. Theological determinism = for every event E, God determines that E will take place and the decree of God is the ultimate sufficient cause of E. So, God’s decree will equal C here. To do otherwise in the (iib) sense, Steve would need to say that W1 and W1 [W2?] both share C. That is, both W1 and W2 have the same decree. I cannot understand how any thoroughgoing theological determinist (which Steve is!) could say that I could do otherwise given the same decree (and I don’t think that Steve thinks this either). But then, these different worlds would need to have different decrees for each. But then, there’s no problem with doing otherwise that arises such that we need many-worlds to account for it.
I could continue to run iterations of Cs, but I think the point has been made. If you maintain that W1 and W2 can, say, share all the same causally relevant facts (up to the moment of choice), yet I do otherwise in W1 than I do in W2, you just don’t have determinism.
It seems obvious that I am identical to myself. That is, I am one and the same thing as me. Who else could I be? So, there exists an x such that x = me. Now, let y = my counterpart, the one who does other than I do in the actual world, @. (Here I use ‘counterpart’ neutrally, as Steve wants to. It’s more like a name for the “me” who does otherwise than me. I leave it open right now whether I am numerically identical to my counterpart.) Here’s what we want to know, does y = x?
This isn’t the ultimate question since God has a concept of me. Thus, I am not the concept. That is, if c = God’s concept of me, c ≠ x. The question is, does x = y.
Steve says, “I’d say those are two different instances of one and the same exemplary idea. The exemplar is God’s idea of an individual.” As far as I can understand this, God has an exemplary idea of me. Me, the x sitting here on my couch typing this, is “an instantiation” of this exemplary idea. The very thing sitting here on the couch typing this = our x. That is, the very thing sitting on the couch typing this is the very same thing as the thing sitting here on the couch typing this, obviously. Now, Steve says when “I” do otherwise in some other world, w, such that w ≠ @, the “I” there, my counterpart, is another instantiation of God’s exemplary idea of me. Is it? That is, since this counterpart is y, then our question is, does y = x? This is legitimate since both me and the counterpart exist, then I can, by existential generalization, conclude that an x and a y exist. Does x = y? In other words, does the x sitting here on the couch typing this in @ = the y that does otherwise in w?
If x = y, then x does otherwise. If x ≠ y, then x doesn’t do otherwise (in virtue of y’s doing otherwise). If this can’t be answered, then I can’t understand how Steve makes good on the quote I opened with, viz., that it is I who does otherwise, i.e., the x that = me is the x that does otherwise than I do in @. To say that x and y are instantiations of the same exemplary idea doesn’t seem to answer the question. Is God’s exemplary idea of just one x or several ‘counterparts,’ y1…yn, such that y1…yn are grouped together by some suitable similarity criteria, but none of ys are identical to any other y other than the y who bears its same subscript?
So when Steve says that “an exact duplicate of me, sitting next to me, is me?,” is to be cashed out as “two different instances of one and the same exemplary idea,” he hasn’t, to my mind, answered the more ultimate question. Are instantiations of the same exemplary idea identical or not?
My final worry is this. Either we hold everything fixed (sans soft facts, say) up to the moment of choice or we don’t. If we don’t, we don’t need many-worlds to show we can do otherwise given the truth of determinism. If so, then there’s a huge luck objection lurking For in the world where I do otherwise than sitting here on the couch typing this, my upbringing should be the same, my psychology the same, my reasons for sitting here the same, my environment the same, the same economy, all the nature and nurture facts that have helped shape who I am need to be present. But, for all that, I do otherwise in w. Aren’t I irrational in w? If so, how am I free in w? Steve will need to make some relevant changes prior to my choosing to sit here and type this.
But this raises other problems. As Steve argued in God and Corn Flakes, small, almost meaningless changes can (and probably do) result in very different worlds.
Adam Omelianchuk
With respect to Fritz, I think your conclusions are too strong. The sort of scenario you describe with Fritz is a moral tragedy: there can't be right action performed in that case (much like in Sophie's choice). There can be a "less bad" option as the outcomes are relevant provided that both options are bad, and that might be a mitigating factor in our assignment of blame, but I don't think it follows that what Fritz does is okay and that he can't at all be held responsible for doing something evil. His hands are dirty regardless.
This is the same sort of objection that can plausibly be made to dropping the A-bomb on Japan. It probably prevented a worse outcome, but the deliberate targeting of civilians just can't be justified (as Anscombe famously argued).
Much of this, though, isn't relevant to the topic at hand, because God is not constrained by these sorts of things.
James, I frame the issue in those terms, because using euphemisms to cover up the violence of the acts that are constitutive of such events lead us astray.
We live in a world where people decapitate others for not sharing another's religious beliefs. You can watch them online.
Canaanite genocide (I used that term because even if herem warfare is what it really is, there is enough morally relevant overlap to call it as such).
I agree that Christ affirmed the OT, but his affirming it tells me nothing about how to resolve this interpretive problem.
I don't know what he thinks about these passages, because he didn't say;
perhaps he wouldn't agree with my approach, but I doubt that he will condemn my effort to use the text for "training in righteousness" which is what Scripture was given to us for.