I already did a little post
on Kingdom through Covenant:
But this book has proven to
be unexpectedly controversial, so I’m going to spend more time interacting with
some of the arguments.
The book has even been
boycotted in some quarters. I think that’s unnecessary. The position of the
authors is a respectable position. And they make a case for their position. So
even if you disagree with them (as I do), their argument ought to be taken
seriously.
The authors label the old
covenant as the “covenant with Israel” (635). The implication of this
designation is that the new covenant is not a covenant with Israel. Yet their
OT prooftexts for the new covenant consist of passages in which God is speaking
to Israel. Where God is making promises to Israel. For instance, Ezk 36:22-36
is explicitly and specifically addressed to Israel. In terms of the historic
setting, moreover, God is addressing the Jewish exiles in Babylon. God is
evidently referring to their postexilic restoration.
As noted above, the old
covenant has a built-in tension. God demands obedience from Israel, yet they
disobey. The law holds out life, but due to sin it cannot ultimately save.
There is nothing in the law-covenant that changes the human heart, which is
what the people desperately need (639).
But don’t we see the same
tension in the NT church? Don’t many NT epistles bear witness to a similar
tension?
Isn’t this tension inevitable
in a fallen world? In inaugurated eschatology, we have a foot in both the
fallen world order and the new world order.
In the New Testament, it is
clear that the new covenant texts are applied to Christ and the church (cf. Lk
22:20; 2 Cor 3; Hebrews 8, 10). Even though the new covenant is made with the
“house of Israel and with the house of Judah” (Jer 31:31)…the NT applies it to
the church through the mediatorial work of Jesus Christ (645-46).
i) The authors spend a lot of
time exegeting the OT. But they need to show how their application arises from
their OT prooftexts.
ii) It’s one thing to say
their OT prooftexts apply to the church, quite another to say their OT
prooftexts include the church to the exclusion of Israel, even when their OT
prooftexts have specific reference to Israel. How can they use their OT
passages to erect an antithetical contrast between Israel and the church
despite the setting and the wording of the very passages they adduce? Even if
you say Israel typifies the church, those are not polar opposites. And from a
Presbyterian standpoint, “the church” is another phase in the history of the
God’s people.
Their OT prooftexts don’t
single out the church to the exclusion of Israel. It wasn’t given as a promise
to the church rather than Israel. At least, that’s not something you can derive
from the OT passages on their own terms.
iii) The mediatorial work of
Christ can apply to Israel as well as the church. That’s not a differential
factor that uniquely selects for the church. Jesus is Israel’s Messiah, as well
as the Savior of the nations.
iv) They appeal to Heb 8-10,
but that’s arguably a Jewish church. A messianic congregation. That’s how many
scholars and commentators classify the audience. Because the members of that
church were messianic Jews, they were tempted to revert to Judaism (i.e. the
Mosaic covenant) in the face of persecution. Unlike Christianity, Judaism was a
religio licita.
It’s counterintuitive to
invoke Heb 8-10 as a way of contrasting Israel to the church when that very
letter was addressed to Jewish Christians.
[The new covenant] will
indeed have a (human) covenant mediator, namely Jesus Christ, who is prophet,
priest, and king in one person. In the old covenant community, these covenant
mediators sinned and the community suffered because of faulty mediators. In the
new covenant, however, our covenant mediator is without sin and as a result,
the community will never suffer because of a faulty mediator (510).
i) But this fails to
distinguish the Baptist position from the Presbyterian position (e.g. WCF). Presbyterians can draw the same
distinction.
ii) In addition, this
distinction can stand on its own. It doesn’t need to be grounded in a theory of
immediate revelation.
Under the new covenant all
will know the Lord, not in a mediate but in an immediate fashion, and all will
have the law written on their hearts and will experience the full forgiveness
of sin (649).
It’s unclear what the authors
mean by this:
i) Christians don’t enjoy
innate knowledge of the gospel. Knowledge of the Gospel is mediated by the
written word (i.e. the NT). And that’s something the new covenant shares in
common with the old covenant.
Indeed, why to the authors
spend so much time prooftexting their position from Scripture if the Holy
Spirit gives Christians direct knowledge of the gospel? Their methodology
contradicts their argument.
ii) Inscribing the law on the
heart is a picturesque metaphor. They seem to think it denotes regeneration
(649). Does that mean they think regeneration was mediate under the old
covenant, but immediate under the new covenant? Surely they don’t believe
Levitical priests mediated regeneration.
Therefore in the new covenant
community there will no longer be a situation where some members urge other
members to know the Lord (510).
Really? Christian parents
shouldn’t urge their kids to know the Lord? A pastor shouldn’t urge his
parishioners to know the Lord? We can just take that for granted?
The newness of the new
covenant, at its heart, is found in the promise of complete forgiveness of sin
(650).
That’s unclear. Weren’t OT
saints completely forgiven? Are the authors suggesting the old covenant only
offered partial forgiveness whereas the new covenant offers full forgiveness?
If OT saints weren’t completely forgiven, did they go to hell when they died?
Fact is, the sacrificial
system didn’t actually confer forgiveness–not even partial forgiveness. Rather,
it symbolized forgiveness, and prefigured forgiveness. It’s not a difference of
degree. OT saints were fully forgiven through the retroactive merits of Christ.
The church, unlike Israel, is
new because she is comprised of a regenerate, believing people rather than a
“mixed” group. The true members of the new covenant community are only those
who have professed that they have entered into union with Christ by repentance
and faith… (685).
i) Profession, regeneration,
and faith are not mutually inclusive. It’s possible to be regenerate, yet lack
conscious faith. It’s possible to have conscious faith, yet lack profession.
Consider infants, the retarded, or the senile.
ii) How does their claim
operate at a concrete level? As a rule, families form the core constituency of
churches. Nuclear families or extended families. “Tribal groupings.” This is no
less true in Baptist churches than in Presbyterian churches. And it’s often the
case that some family members are pious while other members are impious. This
gives rise to a distinction between the invisible church and the visible
church.
There are ways of finessing
this distinction in practice. A church can reserve communicant membership for
those who make a credible profession of faith.
iii) It’s unclear how our
authors define membership. Do they mean formal church membership? A public rite
of initiation (e.g. baptism)? Or do they mean what God does to constitute
members of the covenant community, irrespective of what we do by way of
membership ceremonies?
Under the new covenant, what
was true of the remnant (elect) within Israel will now be true of the entire
covenant community and in greater ways (688).
Remnant themes aren’t
confined to the OT. The same themes are sounded in the NT. Cf. G. Hasel,
“Remnant,” ISBE 4:134; M. Elliot, “Remnant,” New Dictionary of Biblical
Theology, 725.
First, the “mixed” community
interpretation of the warning passages assumes that the nature of Israel and
the church is basically the same, but this begs the question (692).
i) It doesn’t require that
assumption. For passages like Heb 6:4-6 & 10:26-39 have reference to the
church. That doesn’t necessitate comparing the church to Israel. Rather, that
stands on its own two feet.
ii) But as a matter of fact,
the author of Hebrews does compare NT apostates to OT apostates. He begins with
OT apostates (Heb 3-4), then draws a parallel with NT apostates. So the old
covenant community and new covenant community are analogous in that respect. It
supplies an ominous precedent.
To the extent that they
differ, it’s a difference of degree, not of kind. NT apostates are even more
culpable than OT apostates.
Second, this interpretation
contradicts biblical teaching regarding the nature of the new covenant church
(692).
That rejoinder begs the
question. The nature of the new covenant church is the very issue under review.
And the apostasy passages are part of the evidence we use in defining the
nature of the new covenant community.
No one disputes the fact that
apostasy takes place in the new covenant age. What is at dispute is the status
of those apostates. Should they be viewed as “new covenant breakers” (assuming
they were once full covenant members) or, as those who professed faith, who
identified with the church, but who, by their rejection of the gospel,
demonstrated that they were never one with us? (692-93).
i) That’s a false dichotomy.
ii) Doesn’t the author of Hebrews
describe the would-be apostates as covenant members on the brink of becoming
covenant-breakers (e.g. Heb 6:1-5; 10:26,29)? If that’s not the language of
covenant incorporation, what terminology would he use to describe covenant
incorporation?
When apostasy takes place, we
reevaluate the person’s former profession and thus their covenant status (693).
Why bundle those together?
Certainly we reevaluate their former profession, but must we also reevaluate
their covenant status? The authors assume what they need to prove.