Monday, May 01, 2006

Hypocrisy of Unbelief

James 1:8 a doubleminded man [is] unstable in all his ways.

Boy oh boy! "Hath not God made foolish the wisdom in this world?" Paul's rhetorical question in I Corinthians has more and more meaning as I see concrete examples of atheology in action (is this an example of the false meaning/application distinction? See Frame's DKG, p. 81-85) The main example in this entry will be from B. Steven Matthies. How'd I run across Mr. Matthies? Well, Dawson Bethrick (the "Randroid") came into the comments section of my post dismembering silly questions from skeptics and told us about him.

To give some background, one of the questions was, "Who was Cain afraid might kill him after he had killed Abel?" The first thing to note is that the questioner said that Cain was "kicked out of the garden." I pointed out that Cain was never in the garden, only his parents were. Surely this is an embarrassing mistake. But atheologians like Bethrick do not really care about truth. If their side makes a mistake we do not see them lambasting their side. When it comes to Christianity we see them claim that they are on the side of reason and truth. They defend "reason." But constantly, we see atheists refusing to lay down their own strict rules on fellow atheists (or, unbelievers). Atheists, like Bethrick, are about the group first, reason next; whenever it suits them. Reason and truth are really not that important to them as they claim.

There are many, many examples of this; I'll cite but a few. The above blunder about Cain and Abel being in the garden was one. Second, in my debate with atheist Derek Sansone many atheists refused to tell him how poor he did. In fact, they told him the opposite. Bethrick did not blog on how poor Derek did. Bethrick blogs on how poor he thinks Bahnsen did (Bahnsen v. Stein), though. Atheists were about saving their fellow unbeliever first (lest he turn to The Faith) than they were about telling him how poor he did. I constantly see this religious attitude in the allegedly non-religious. "Get as many people to deny God first; truth, whatever that is, takes the hindmost" seems to be the motto of many of them.

Third, when Dr. Zachary Moore showed his ignorance of logic the atheists cheered him (read the comments section of his post, linked to in my post on Triablogue). After I showed his error they refused to tell him that he was wrong. Some, like Bethrick, implied that he didn't know who was right. This just shows how serious he (and his ilk) should be taken. My point was about as simple as the rule in math that if you add one to any number, you'll go one number higher.

Further examples can be seen in John W. Loftus, of Debunking Christianity. He demands that Christians submit their views to the "test of reason." Notice how Loftus expects Christians to act "reasonable" and "test" their beliefs by "reason." Christians are not allowed to be arbitrary, or believe things arbitrarily. Christians must suspend belief about miracles recorded in the Bible because they cast a critical eye on reports of the miraculous today. So we can see that Loftus expects us to be strictly rational. The demands on the Christian are tough. Loftus will not allow us to get away with believing things willy-nilly.

But when it comes to pressing Loftus's beliefs, the story is different. When pressed to justify his beliefs he tells us things like this:

  • "...logic and reason may have no ultimate foundation, much like morals do not have an ultimate foundation."
  • "Maybe reason has merely shown itself trustworthy by pragmatic verification based in the anthropic principle evidenced in the universe--it just works."
  • "... it may be that reason doesn't work as well as the presuppositionalist proclaims."
  • "If this universe took place by chance, then the fact that reason cannot figure it all out is exactly what we would expect. We would not be able to ultimately justify our use of reason..."
  • ..."reason is impotent to help decide between ultimacies..."
  • "I just prefer to accept as a brute fact the existence of this universe. It came without a cause, and it has no purpose."



Therefore we see two-mindsets at work within the one man, John Loftus. He has no problem being strictly rational when it comes to arguing with the Christian, but he, at the same time, has no problem capitulating to irrationality when his views are pressed. For us, there is to be "no more quoting the Bible to defend how Jesus' death on the cross saves us from sins. The Christian must now try to rationally explain it." But for him, he does not need to rationally explain his views but can just say, "reason and order are here, and that's just the way it is, it's a brute fact, I don't need to ultimately give an account for logic, morality, origins, and reason.... I just believe..." But what happens if the Christian tries to pull this? We are told that we have "blind faith." We are told that we can have our faith, but let's not try to pretend it can be justified, or is rational. We are even told that we need to give up our faith if we cannot pass "the test of reason." Is saying, "That’s just the way it is!" passing "the test of faith? If so, then Christianity is true, and that's just the way it is. If not, then Loftus must give up his worldview. Either way, Christianity: 1, John Loftus: 0.


Well, the above was a bit of a digression, but I think it is interesting to note the phenomena. I suggest to my fellow Christians that the more you keep your eye out for this the more you'll see it. So, have some comfort; many atheists are not about truth and reason first, they're about making sure they keep their members.

Now, after I pointed out that Cain and Abel were not ever in the garden, I simply said that Cain was afraid of the other people that lived on the earth. Dawson Bethrick then asked me how many there were and what were their names. The point of his question eludes me. The only way it can be charitably read in a way other than making Dawson look like a stooge is to read it as Bethrick offering a rhetorical question with the implied conclusion: "If you don't know their names and how many there were, how do you know there were any? Since the Bible doesn't say there were others, then there were no others." This is the best way to read Bethrick. We see, though, that the best way to read Bethrick is to read him as committing the fallacy of argumentum ad ignorantium!

I had pointed out that the purpose of the Bible was not to give an answer (or a detailed and precise answer) to everything there is. For example, the Bible doesn't tell us how to change a flat tire. Bethrick said, "I agree, the Bible doesn't give us knowledge of anything." His tried to imply that he was agreeing with me but I pointed out that I never said the Bible doesn't give us knowledge of anything, just that it doesn't give us knowledge of everything (in the sense I meant above. In another sense, the Bible does give us some knowledge of everything in the world. For example, everything is created). I pointed out to Bethrick that it gives us knowledge on how to escape the wrath to come.

At this point we're getting to the purpose of this post. Bethrick said that the Bible does not give us knowledge of Salvation. He implied that the Bible is all confused on this issue. He said that in some places the Bible says we're saved by worlks, in others, by believing. He then provided a link to B. Steven Matthies' article on The Secular Web. Apparently Bethrick puts some stock into this guy and his objections. Bethrick writes on salvation:


"Actually, it's [the Bible] quite unclear on this very point. Some passages say that merely confessing with the tongue is sufficient. Others say that belief is required. Still others say that works are required as well. Then others say that repentence [sic] is required, etc. Some passages indicate that the "escape" you mention begins with the one who wants to do the escaping, while others indicate that it is initiated from without the would-be escapee. Quite a tangle here which many theologians have attempted to untangle. Suppose we check in on them and ask, "How's it going?"

For a brief introduction to this source of confusion, check out B. Steven Matthies' Christian Salvation? for starters. If it worries you, perhaps you can devote a blog entry to sorting out the mess."


After perusing Matthies' article I was confronted with the above phenomena I spoke of. Why do atheists think bad reasoning and bad argumentation is good if done by a non-believer? Bethrick claims he was a Christian, but if he agrees with Matthies article then one must wonder if he ever was a believer. Maybe he was in the youth group of some touchy-feely church and now just uses his past childhood (leaving out the details) to give him some credibility when talking about Christianity. One thing is clear, though, as a believer he never studied his faith. We hardly ever find a Christian, who was intellectually satisfied, becoming an atheist. Indeed, in most cases (actually, all) the reason people leave the faith is for moral reasons (i.e., cheating on their wife), not intellectual ones. The intellectual ones always come after, as a way to justify their moral rebellion.

Apparently this Matthies fellow was a newly converted non-believer who found these problems with salvation and chose to write about them as a means to answer well meaning Christians who tried to re-convert him, as well as to soothe his unwarranted fear of, in Eddward Tabsh's words, "the Bar-B-Q pit." Mathies writes,


1) This article was written over a period of months starting in 2001. During that time I was still wrestling with the ramifications of my nonbelief, [sic] thus the tone of this article may reflect some of my personal frustrations. Since writing this article I have become quite comfortable with my atheism. In addition, I would also like to thank the Secular Web for providing me with a virtual resource that helped me to resolve some of these issues.

2) Finally, it should be noted that my reasons for writing this article were as follows:

1) A response to well-meaning Christians who try to reconvert me, 2) a way to deal with my own church-indoctrinated fear of hell (and possibly help others deal with their own fear), and 3) to get both Christians and non-Christians to examine Christianity. The article also has the ancillary intent of casting doubt on the truth of Christianity as revealed by the Bible, but this was not my main intent. Nor should this article be seen as a formal proof or technical essay for the nonexistence of God.



Notice how he hedges his bet in the last sentence. His article attempts to show that the Bible contradicts itself on the question of "How can I be saved?" If there is a contradiction in the Bible then the Bible is false! The God of the Bible would not exist. So, is he saying that there is no contradiction, just some conceptual problems? If that is the case then Matthies gives us an example all to common in the reasoning of un-believers - the inability to apply the rules they impose on the Bible to themselves.

Certainly their are conceptual headaches in the areas of the sciences, mathematics, logic, physics, etc. To some, it might be conceptually problematic that we are being hurled through space right now on a gigantic ball which is spinning thousands of miles an hour, and we don’t fall off! All to often I run into unbelievers who say, "I just don't get how such and such could be the case." Then, this ignorance is used to reject the Bible, in tota! But, when we run across things in the sciences (say, the double slit experiment which shows that a particle can have wave like properties, an antinomy to some) do we drop science? No, they use it to attack Christianity. So, if he thought that since his finite mind couldn't understand something that was a reason to reject Christianity then he ought to reject everything! Matthies shows that he thought his mind was the standard and that the Bible needed to bow down before the mind of Matthies. Thus, as a struggling believer, he was already acting like an unbeliever.

As one reads Matthies' reasons for writing this article we see that he undertook this study of Scripture to see what the Bible taught regarding salvation. He did so because, as he says,


"During my discussions with most Christians regarding my lack of belief, sooner or later I am usually presented with the fact that I am not saved and risk an eternity of damnation. Indeed, when I was a Christian, eternal salvation was something I did not take lightly. After all, what sane person would risk an eternity of damnation by turning away from God or questioning His precepts?"


Matthies attempts to show that he is not in danger of hell and that salvation is a confused issue in the Bible. Matthies is told that he needs "to turn to the Bible for my answers, that, somehow, via the rule of faith, God will once again 'inspire' me to find the true meaning in those sacred words" by believers who wish him to return to the faith. Matthies takes them up on their offer and offers a succinct summary of his findings:


"Ever the quick study, I decided to take those Christians up on their advice and once again found myself back in the Bible trying to figure out how one is "saved." Logic would dictate that obtaining this salvation would be fairly straightforward and laid out in one easy-to-understand book--especially if said creator of this book wanted to make sure His followers were indeed "saved." Of course, upon investigation I found that this is not the case. One Christian denomination tells us the "saved" were predestined. One tells us that baptism is required. Another says baptism is a ritual and that salvation comes through belief in Christ's sacrifice. Others say Christ's sacrifice alone is enough. Yet another stresses good works or the grace of God."



The cautious reader will note the elementary blunder that Matthies commits. Matthies tells us above that he is going to see what the Bible teaches regarding salvation. But notice that he writes that "upon investigation" he found that the Bible was not clear on how one is saved. He writes that "it is not the case" that the Bible is clear and straightforward on this matter. Well, how is it not clear? How is the Bible unclear? Matthies tells us that it is not the case that the Bible is clear because Christians have different stories on how one is saved! Notice that Matthies was supposed to be critiquing the Bible but then he turns it around and critiques adherents of the Bible. Thus his critique goes like this: The Bible is unclear on how one is saved because people who read the Bible have different ideas on how one is saved. This is just fallacious! Why would the Secualr Web (and the lesser Bethrick) give the nod to an article which is obviously fallacious? Well, because when they read their own ilk, they take the critical thinking cap off. Protect the group first, reason later.

In defense of Matthies I assume his reasoning can be stated stronger than above. He might try to get out of the fallacy by claiming that the Bible is supposed to be clear on how one is saved, especially if God desires people to know how one can be saved. Since there are so many disagreements, the Bible must not be clear therefore, for if it were clear, there would not be any (or, as many) disagreements. This still does not avoid the fallacy, though it at least has the facade of appearing reasonable. It will never avoid the fallacy because it always confuses the book with people's understanding of the book. This can be illustrated perhaps by an example that is not overtly religious. Say that I teach math to 8 year olds. Now, say that I had a set of clear questions on the test, e.g., 5x5, 6x6, 8x8, 20 + 20 + 20, 75/100, etc. Now, let's say that a student told me that my test was not clear. When I ask the student why, they respond, "Look how many different answers there were to the questions on the test!" Would this prove that the test was unclear? No.

Now, if you established that the Bible was unclear then you could use this fact to account for the differences between various denominations. You could not reason the other way, though. There could be a lot of variables which accounted for a certain group's misunderstanding of something clear. Indeed, why does Matthies not even grant this possibility? The Bible claims that it is clear on this issue. The denominations claim that the Bible is clear. So, maybe the fault is with the people and not the text?

Furthermore, Matthies leaves out relevant information. Matthies assumes that it must be the Bible's distorted picture of salvation that confuses people. But according to the biblical worldview, people are fallen and therefore their understanding of things is not always clear. I happen to think that the Bible is clear on this issue though. Before I defend the issue and critique Matthies' argument for the Bible‘s opacity, some more introductory leg work is necessary. Matthies has many paradigms and ideas he imposes on this argument which must be dismantled before we can move on.

I have already noted Matthies' number one error. His article assumes it throughout. He assumes that un-clarity in people's understanding of the Bible is evidence that the Bible itself is unclear. He must first show that the Bible is indeed unclear, though. He ever so briefly attempts to do this and so we will need to address his attempt. But before we do we must untangle another one of his mistakes. You see, Matthies gives some verses which he thinks show that the Bible is unclear on the issue of salvation and heaven and hell. I think that they are taken out of context and his atrocious understanding of the text serves to (1) throw doubt upon his claims to being a Christian (at best he was a "Christian" who never studied his Bible and then, wonder of wonders, found "errors" in it when he decided to "study it" as an unbeliever), (2) shame the Secular Web (and the lesser Bethrick) for posting such incompetent attempts at debunking Christianity.

But before any Christian responds that he has indeed taken these texts out of context, or has misunderstood them, Matthies lays down some rules that we must obey before we can critique his understanding of the texts. Here is his defense mechanism:


"Now I'm sure some critics will say I'm taking those verses "out of context." Well, to those critics I ask that a "context" be clearly defined and followed among Christians before you criticize my observations. If these rules were clearly defined among Christians, one would not see various Christian denominations debating..."


Here we have more ridiculous statements. Here we have more reason to question whether the Secular Web (and the lesser Bethrick) keep their thinking caps on at all times, or just when it suits them to critique Christians. Is good reasoning really what motivates them? Or is just getting people not to believe what motivates them. Do they think that bad arguments, dressed up to sound reasonable, should be used as long as it meets the ends of deconversion? Do ends justify the means, then?

Let's look at some concrete examples of how the above is simply ridiculous. Take the idea that if rules of context "were clearly defined among Christians, one would not see various Christian denominations debating" doctrinal issues. Now, do scholars of Plato debate what he said and what he meant? Of course they do. Does Matthies mean to propose that if Platonic scholars would simply define and follow rules of context, then there would be no more debate amongst them! What about all the fields in which there is disagreement (e.g., logicians, mathematicians, epistemologists, et. al.)? Does Matthies mean to tell Kant scholars that if they would just define rules of context then there would be no more disagreement about what Kant meant by, say, transcendental arguments.

Next, note that Matthies tells us that not only must context be "clearly defined" by Christians but he also demands that Christians follow the rules of context before they can tell Matthies that he has taken something out of context! Leaving aside the request for a "clearly defined" statement of "context" for the moment, why must Christians also "follow" these rules before we can tell Matthies that he has taken something out of context? This is an odd request. Imagine, if you will, that someone "clearly defined" what stealing was, and the rules to follow in order to not steal. Now, let's say the definition was, "Taking something that does not belong to you." Let's further say that the rules for not stealing were X, Y, and Z. Now, does Matthies mean to imply that if I did not follow X, y, and Z that I could not accuse him of taking something that does not belong to him?!

Indeed, it gets worse. I assume Matthies thinks that "good reason" should be followed in debates such as this one? Now, let's say that Matthies can "clearly define" what "good reason" is. Let's assume, further, that he can lay down the rules to follow in order to be said that you are reasoning well. Does Matthies always follow these rules? Does he ever make a mistake in reasoning? I doubt the man never ceases to follow the rules of "good reason." Does this mean that I can reason fallaciously and then say to Matthies, "Not only must you clearly define what 'good reason' means, but you must also follow its rules before you can tell me that I have reasoned poorly?" Thus Matthies has lost all ability to critique fallacious reasoning, including the ability to critique the Bible for making an error in reasoning (i.e., contradictions)! Therefore it is not at all clear that Christians must "follow" the rules of taking things in context in order to critique Matthies for taking something out of context. All Matthies is doing is stacking the deck in his favor. He's asking Christians to do things that he would refuse to do, and that no other fields of inquiry (and the denominations therein) are required to do. Obviously this man has an axe to grind with his Maker. What other reason is there for this kind of unfair hostility towards Christianity? Why does Christianity have to play by rules that no one else has to follow! Indeed, since no one else follows this rule I guess Matthies won't care that I critique his understanding of the texts since he can't critique me for not following the rules when he nor anyone else does!

Moreover, the word 'reason' is host to all sorts of differing definitions. Does Matthies have a "clearly defined" definition of 'reason?' Many definitions of 'reason' have and could be given. Some have identified it with the senses, some with logic, and some with the ability to know the forms. What follows from this line of argumentation? Well, if Matthies cannot "clearly define" good reason, as well as follow its rules, then he cannot accuse me of reasoning poorly in this response. In fact, I'll refute him thusly: If ice cream cones don't have bones, then Matthies has taken his passages out of context, Matthies likes Armani cologne, therefore he has taken these passages out of context.

Lastly, before we look at some more errors, we should address Matthies' request that "context and the rules of following it" be "clearly defined" before we critique his understanding of the texts? First off, why should we have to "clearly define" context? Why can not a rough working understanding of context be enough to tell when someone has not interpreted the verse within its context? I have a rough (or, perhaps, a bit better than rough) understanding of how to play Chess. I don't know all the ins and outs. I don't have a "clearly defined" understanding of every iota of the game. I have a good working understanding. Is this enough for me to know that someone cannot castle through check? Is this enough for me to tell someone that fienchettoing the Bishop is not a good defense sometimes. Can I not object when someone does an improper en passant?

Second, does Matthies have a "clearly defined" understanding of "context?" If not, then how can he say that Christians have taken things out of context and not followed the rules? Does he follow his rules? I'd assume that Matthies, and all of us, can understand, at least roughly, what it means to "take something out of context." According to the dictionary, context is defined as: "The part of a text or statement that surrounds a particular word or passage and determines its meaning." Using this definition I could know when something has been taken out of context. It is not "clearly defined." For example, what is "the part" that "surrounds" the text? Is it five sentences up and five down? Is it one chapter forward and two chapters back?

We also read that the surrounding passages give the word or phrase its meaning. Is this "clearly defined?" Can I use this idea to understand when something has been taken out of context? Sure I can. If someone is talking about money, and paying people back, and then he writes this phrase: "That man owed me a lot of dough," would Matthies assume that the person is talking about cookie dough? Would anyone? Well, maybe some atheists would wanted to "catch" the Bible making an error because it was "imprecise." But most of us understand that how an author is using a phrase or term determines its meaning. I think we can all agree on this concept and, even if we don't have a "clearly defined" definition of context, if I can show that he is using a term differently than the authorized it then I can rightly say that he has taken the verse out of context.

There are many levels of "context." A simple level is to read, say, John 3:16 along with John 3:1-15 and 17-21. But we can also relate John 3:16 to the larger context of the entire book in which it is found. Another level is to place the context in the entire corpus of the author's writing. Another level is to place the verse in relationship to the entire New Testament. The New Testament might be related to the Old Testament. Still we can place verses in the context of the readers and the lives of those who it was written to. We can place it into the context of various doctrines, etc. This is the same with all works When a newscaster say that sunset will be at 5:25 p.m. I do not think she means that the sun literally sets. But, if someone in the 1200's said the same thing I would probably read it as literal. If an author today wrote about the farthest edges of the earth, I would not think that they meant the earth was flat, but I might with someone in the 1400s. So, many things create the context. The type of writing adds to context. For example, if a poet said that God is like a dove I would not think that he really meant a physical bird. So, context is determined by many different levels and I highly doubt that Matthies can live up to the demands he places on the Christian (note: the above discussion of many-leveled context is indebted to John Frame's "The Doctrine of The Knowledge of God," P&R, 1987, pp 169-70).

Therefore I dismiss Matthies' claim that I need to "clearly define" context in order to point out that he has taken something out of context. The main refutation of his command is by reductio ad absurdum. Having dispelled this portion we can move on in our analysis of Matthies' article.

Matthies graciously leaves us alone on the problem of context by,


"Putting those critics aside for the moment, this leads us to the present day state of affairs among the various denominations of Christianity. Granted, I'm no theologian, but one would think a perfect God who knows "everything" would have foreseen what these contradictions would do to his followers' faith. One would think that a perfect God would have directed His followers to write one sacred book. One would think that this one book would detail just exactly how one is to be "saved" and that this plan would be uniformly followed--at least among Christians. More importantly, one would think that Christianity would agree on just exactly how one is "saved." Of course, once again confusion reigns!


So, Matthies tells us that he is not theologian but then proceeds to talk about God. He makes theological claims. Everyone makes theological claims and is in some sense, a theologian. So, everyone is a theologian, the problem is not everyone does the job well, as we can see with Matthies.

We must point out again that Matthies assumes that people disagreeing mean that the text itself is not clear. But this doesn't follow. Matthies also does not tell us why he "thinks" these things about God. Maybe God did know that problems would arise, but He had a good plan for doing things the way He chose to do them?

Matthies also claims that there are contradictions in the Bible on the doctrine of salvation. The problem is that Matthies never once, in his entire article, interacts with the texts that he assumes prove contradictions. He just throws them out there, and assumes that they are brute facts that bear meaning all by themselves without taking the context into account. He never supplies any exegesis for his understanding of the texts. This is certainly poor scholarship. Indeed, the actual Scriptures represent the smallest portion of his article. The vast majority of his article argues that since people disagree on the text, then the text qua text is unclear. He actually never shows that the text contradicts itself but naively assumes it. He assumes that a mere surface reading of the texts are enough to prove his point. One could do that same, though, with "modern science" when a scientist says that some people who live at the outer edges of the earth have certain resistance to some bacteria. I could stick my fingers in my ears, ignore the milieu of the times, and just quote the phrase: "The outer edges of the earth" and then use it for evidence that science qua science is contradictory by placing it next to another scientist who says that the earth is a sphere. This is all Matthies has done, upon analysis. Why would people laugh at me if I were to do the above but they do not laugh at Matthies when he reasons thus? Is it because of the hypocrisy of unbelief? Why the double standard?

Let us now turn to the alleged contradictions in Scripture. Matthies "proves" the Bible contradicts itself, as I said above, just by listing some verses, without doing the homework and properly analysis to show that they are indeed contradictory. Here is his entire "argument" from Scripture:


(1) By Hearing the Gospel & Belief in God: John 5:24: "He that heareth my word, and believeth on him that sent me, hath everlasting life."

(2) By Baptism: John 3:5: "Jesus answered, 'I tell you the truth, no one can enter the kingdom of God unless he is born of water and the Spirit.'"

(3) By Grace & Faith, not Works: Ephesians 2:8,9: "For by grace are ye saved through faith ... not of works."

(4) By Faith & Works: James 2:17: "Even so faith, if it hath not works, is dead, being alone."

(5) By Keeping the Law: Matthew 19:17: "... if thou wilt enter unto life, keep the commandments."

(6) By Belief in Christ: John 3:16: "... whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life."

(7) By Belief and Baptism: Mark 16:16: "He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned."

(8) By Words: Matthew 12:37: "For by thy words thou shalt be justified, and by thy words thou shalt be condemned."

(9) By Calling on the Lord: Acts 2:21: "whoever calls upon the name of the Lord shall be saved."

(10) Not Works but by Grace & Baptism: Titus 3:5: "Not by works ... but according to his mercy ... by the washing of regeneration." (Note: some denominations will say the washing refers to Christ's blood and sacrifice.)

(11) According to Proverbs 16:4: God made the "wicked" for "the day of evil" (i.e. judgment & damnation). Of course, this makes no sense in light of passages that confirm or suggest that Jesus died for a small number of the elect; or that suggest all will be saved: John 1:29, 4:42, 1 Corinthians 15:29, Hebrews 2:9, 1 John 4:14.

(12) Salvation Available to the Chosen Few: Matthew 7:14, 22:14, Luke 12:32, 13:24, John 6:37,65,15:16,19, Romans 8:29, 9:11-23, Ephesians 1:4.

(13) Salvation Available to Those Who Desire it: Matthew 7:7-8, 11:28, John 3:16, 5:40, 7:37, Acts 2:21, Revelations 3:20.



There are so many errors one hardly knows where to begin or how to untangle this mess. This man pretends he used to be a Christian but then shows almost no knowledge of how many of these texts are understood and interpreted. The proper thing to do here would be to engage and exegete the texts. But, as I've shown above, Matthies really does not care about what the Bible says, he only cares about how people understand the Bible, and then he underhandedly shifts that observation back on to the Bible. Not only that, but many of these verses are not clear and their understanding is disputed. For Matthies to just throw them out without offering his interpretation is a "scholarship" not worthy of the name.

Matthies commits many blunders, I'll cite two. In (11) one notes that Matthies says that Jesus died for a small number of the elect. First, the Bible nowhere says that Jesus died for a small number of the elect, as if some elect were not died for! Furthermore, there is not one denomination that says Jesus died for a small number of the elect. There are denominations (such as mine) who say that Jesus died for the elect, all of them.

In (10) we see Matthies imports his understanding into the text. It is at precisely this point that Matthies should show how he derives his understanding. If someone says that a text says one thing, and that thing is not in the text at all, then it is incumbent upon that person to show why we should accept his understanding. So, in (10) we read of "the washing of regeneration." Matthies confuses the sign and the thing signified. It does not mean that baptism qua baptism saves but, as Calvin says, "'God hath saved us by his mercy, the symbol and pledge of which he gave in baptism, by admitting us into his Church, and ingrafting us into the body of his Son.'" So, even if this passage referrs to water baptism, rather than regeneration, Matthies shows that he has no clue as to what baptism signifies in the Bible.

Matthies fails to provide evidence for his thesis in citing many of these passages. Remember that he is trying to show that the Bible contradicts itself. But reading the above one gets the idea that Matthies has no clue what a contradiction even is! For example, (9) and, say, (1) are not contradictions. It may be that people can go to heaven by hearing and obeying as well as calling on the same of the Lord. A contradiction would be something like if two verses said: (14) All those who call on the name of the Lord will be saved, and (15) Some of those who do not call on the name of the Lord will be saved. So, almost all of his verses do not constitute contradictions for it may be that there are many different ways to obtain salvation. This is not to say that there are, but simply to rebut the idea that Matthies is showing contradictions in all his cited passages.

Matthies uses verses that do not mean what he implies. For example, in (2) Matthies tells us that the Bible teaches that salvation is "by baptism." But John 3:5 does not mention the word "baptism." So, Matthies tells us that there is a contradiction because in John 3:5 the Bible teaches salvation by baptism. Now, let's say that John 3:5 does mean that water baptism saves. Since this isn't explicitly stated in the text Matthies should do the responsible thing and show how he draws his intended meaning out of the text. As it stands, all Matthies has done is to assert that John 3:5 teaches salvation by baptism. If this were all it took to show that a view was wrong, then I assert that when Matthies says certain things he shows how stupid atheists can be. Matthies writes,

Moreover, every denomination I researched has millions of followers, so no matter how you cut it, many people who think they are Christians are going to a yet-undefined hell.


See, Matthies thinks that "ways of looking at things" can be cut with his steak knife! If I really did mean what I just wrote, then the burden would be on me to show that Matthies thought such a thing. Indeed, our situation is even worse because Matthies did use the word "cut" but the Bible does not use the word "baptize" in John 3:5.

Moreover, the Bible never uses the phrase "born of water" to refer to Christian baptism! Remember, Matthies is trying to show that the Bible teaches in John 3:5 that salvation is by baptism. If Matthies thinks that the Bible teaches this because some people interpret the Bible this way then, as I've already established, he's arguing fallaciously. So, why would Matthies think that the Bible teaches water baptism in John:3:5? We've already noted that John 3:5 does not mention the word "baptism." So, what could it be that forces Matthies to read the Bible this way? Well, the only thing I can think of is that since Jesus says the word "water" He therefore must mean "water baptism" since both make use of the word water. But this is absurd as this illustration will show: Bridal shower means a bunch of brides getting wet since taking a "shower" means one will get wet.

Therefore it is demanded that Matthies show why he takes the Bible to be teaching water baptism here. He can't just make passages say what he wants them to in order to obtain a contradiction or else we have the nasty conclusion that Matthies thinks "ways of looking at things" can be "cut" with steak knives. But Matthies does not do so. In fact, he never does this with any of the verses he proposes are problems for the Bible. This kind of analysis would be scoffed at if it came from a Christian, yet Matthies and the Secular Web are allowed a free pass when it comes to offering cogent argumentation. Remember, it is only Christians who are held to the strict standards of arguing rationally. Since that is the nature of the debate, I shall oblige.

What interpretation is more likely here? How about one that argues that since the Greek has one article governing the two words (water/spirit) they are one item and not two that are being thought about? How about we add to that that the Bible does use the water/spirit illustration unlike the "born of water/baptism" illustration? How about we mention Ezekiel 36:25-27 where God uses water and spirit to indicate spiritual regeneration? How about we mention the fact that the Bible does refer to regeneration as new birth? How about we mention that regeneration is part of salvation (cf. the "ordo salutis") and therefore no one saved is un-regenerate. Since only saved people will see heaven then it is true that only regenerate people will see heaven. And since regeneration is a new birth, wrought by the spirit, signified as "washing with water" and the "pouring out of the Spirit," then Jesus is correct that no one will see heaven unless that person is regenerate (born again, from above, by spirit/water). Thus we see that the double-standard demands of secularism always back-fire on them. They come off looking like hacks and we come off looking like those who actually put in the effort to give cogent reasons why we believe what we believe.

I will address two more examples. I really do not need to address any of his passages since he no where takes the time to explain why they constitute problems with the Bible, but I hope the above will suffice to show that Matthies has a long way to go if he's to make anything resembling a case. I've shown that Matthies uses his own words to imply that a passage he cites teaches what he claims, but he never shows how it does. Matthies is banking on the fact that fellow non-believers will be just as uncritical as he is, and therefore will accept his mere assertions. Likewise, I am banking on there being people who want to think critically and therefore can see that Matthies has not made a case from the Bible.

I will address (12) and (13). Actually, all of these points, like, say, (3) and (4) have been addressed before. Matthies shows no interest in dealing with the resolutions. Again, this is because of his basic fallacy I've pointed out: People disagree on the text, therefore the text itself is in disagreement.

(12) says that salvation is for a "few" yet (13) says that salvation is for those who desire it. Matthies acts as if "salvation" is like a hot night club with thousands of people clamoring to get in. That is, he thinks there is a problem because he thinks that since the Bible teaches that only God's elect will be saved then those who want to be saved, but are not elect, cannot be saved, yet the Bible tells us that anyone who desires to be saved can be saved. But what if only the elect desired to be saved? That is, it is true that Jesus would never turn away anyone who comes to Him for salvation. And, it is also true that anyone who truly desires to be saved will be saved. And, it is also true that only the elect will desire to be saved. There is only a problem if there are some people who desire to be saved by Christ, and Christ turns them away. It is true that anyone who comes to Christ will be saved, i.e., Christ will not turn them away. So, the Bible makes a true claim that anyone who believes will be saved. It is true that if someone believes on the name of Christ, that someone will be saved.

The problem is that no one will come to Christ unless God has chosen that person to come to Christ (cf. John:644). So, Matthies is bringing up the old problem of "the free offer of the gospel." That is, he thinks that since the gospel is offered to all, this contradicts the teaching that only a chosen people will be saved. How could God sincerely offer the gospel to all, yet predestine to save a some of the all? But this is not so odd. A general may make a free offer of pardon in return for the surrender of the enemy. He sincerely offers pardon and the freedom for enemy soldiers even though he knows that many will refuse to surrender. So, both of the claims are true. The offer is made to all, yet only a few will be saved. Actually, then, (12) is a false claim in the sense that the Bible does not say that "anyone who is chosen may believe on Christ and then be saved." It is true that anyone who believes will be saved. It is just false that there are any clamoring to be saved, who will not be saved. The club analogy is actually correct if we changed a few details: A night club opens its doors to anyone who wants to come in. People see the night club and think it an offense to all proper night clubs. In fact, it serves a dish that only 80 people in the city like. Even though only the 80 enter, the doors were still open for all, they just did not want to enter.

Having looked at Matthies' non-argument from the Bible, we will now look at the rest of his article. I've already pointed out that his basic argument that since people disagree about the Bible, the Bible itself is wrong, is fallacious and, therefore, I do not even need to continue writing. In fact, I could have refuted his entire article with one sentence. But, sometimes people, especially those who publicly renounce the faith they once held, need to be embarrassed. The Church, and its members, need to embarrass these people. Hopefully through public humiliation they will see the temporal judgments for leaving Christianity (once of which is to leave behind your rationality!) and repent in time to escape the everlasting judgment.

When one looks at Matthies' article and gets past the basic fallacy, one will note that he also engages in the nature of lying to defend his rejection of Christianity. I will proceed to argue that not only has he misrepresented the Bible, he also misrepresents many of the groups he surveys. The Secular Web, by hosting his article, tacitly agrees with lies spread about other people. The Secular Web constantly mocks Christians for misquoting evolutionary scientists, but turned their critical eye off one of their own. The Secular Web allows lies to be spread about fellow human beings, wonders of "mother nature." Not only should they shut this article down for its horrendous "argumentation" but they should also remove this blight because of its non-truths about others. Well, I'm speaking as a Christian, one who actually has a foundation for morality, and a reason to be moral, so I may be asking to much. Below I will point out a few examples of the lies Matthies tells:

Matthies tells us that Southern Baptists believe that one is saved by,

Baptism (by immersion) seen as a public testimony to the commitment to Christ (infant or preconversion baptisms not practiced); some require baptism, some do not. Belief in God, eternal covenant between the Father and the Son about the redemption of the elect, repentance of sin. Communion is seen as symbolic.


For his documentation he cites "About Us." The Southern Baptist Convention. Revised 2002. Available from http://www.sbc.net/aboutus/. [Accessed 17 August, 2002] Now, let’s read what they write,

Salvation

Salvation involves the redemption of the whole man, and is offered freely to all who accept Jesus Christ as Lord and Savior, who by His own blood obtained eternal redemption for the believer. In its broadest sense salvation includes regeneration, sanctification, and glorification.


He says that "Southern Baptists" answer the question "How one is saved?" by requiring baptism, and believing in the eternal coventnat. But we can read with our own eyes that this is not the case. Indeed(!) Matthies seems unable to read simple summary statements. Nowhere does the above site say that one needs to "believe" in the "eternal covenant between the Father and the Son about the redemption of the elect."

His second footnote (n. 17) on what "Southern Baptists" believe regarding "How one is saved" cites a "Disciples of Christ" organization and not a "Southern Baptist" one! The Disciples of Christ" website (http://www.disciples.org/general/saved.htm) tells us this about baptism:

Early Disciples argued with other Christians about whether baptism was "necessary" or not, whether one "had to" be baptized in order to be saved. Contemporary Disciples rarely take this approach, but this does not minimize the importance of baptism.


Next, Matthies tells us that "Christian Scientists" believe that there is no such thing as sin. But to marshal support for this he cites the above "Disciples!," who say this,

In the Bible, salvation means deliverance from natural disasters (e.g. Matthew 8:25), deliverance from sickness and physical blindness (e.g. Luke 18:42; Acts 4:12; James 5:15), deliverance from sin(e.g. Matthew 1:21; Luke 7:36-50; Acts 5:31)...


So, he footnotes non-Christian Scientists, who affirm the existence of sin, as support that Christian Scientists do not affirm sin! This is simply pathetic. (Actually, it looks as if Matthies switched notes 16 with 17. This is, at best, a hack job, then.)

One more example should suffice. Matthies writes on what "Presbyterians" believe about "How one is saved." Since I'm Presbyterian this one had special meaning for me. He says we say that salvation is,

Baptism seen as symbolic ritual; salvation through God's Grace; belief in Christ's sacrifice, emphasis on works and "The Great Commission." Believe that The Lord's Supper is seen as symbolic though Christ is present in spirit. "The doctrine of predestination frees us from speculating about who is saved and who is not. God has already taken care of these matters in the mystery of God's own being." (see note # 33)


Now he backs this up with footnoting the Christian Scientists (again!) which are really the Disciples of Christ (not Presbyterian) as well as the PCUSA. Now, since there are different flavors of Presbyterianism, it's a bit misleading to use the PCUSA's website as official doctrine of, say, The PCA.

Regardless of that, let's look at what the PCUSA says regarding salvation,

God has always been faithful to the people of Israel and to the church. Presbyterians believe God has offered us salvation because of God's loving nature. It is not a right or a privilege to be earned by being "good enough." No one of us is good enough on our own--we are all dependent upon God's goodness and mercy. From the kindest, most devoted churchgoer to the most blatant sinner, we are all saved solely by the grace of God. http://www.pcusa.org/101/101-sin.htm


Thus we can see that Matthies says the PCUSA says we are saved by "good works" yet what I cited from the site Matthies refers to we see exactly the opposite! The Secular Web allows lies to be posted on their website all in the name of "refuting Christianity." This is an embarrassment to Atheism in general, the Secualr Web, and Matthies himself. I hope they are shamed by what they allow.

Next I'd like to point out that Matthies names numerous groups who are not Christian in order to bolster support for his "argument." He names us with such groups as the Mormons, the Christian Scientists, Jehovah's Witnesses, and Oneness Pentecostals. I mean, how can a group that denies the trinity and one that affirms the trinity both be called Christians? This would be like if I said that deists were atheists. This is more sloppy scholarship and more evidence that non-believers chuck reason at the door of their in-house meetings.

In closing I'd like to point out that this paper has been used by many atheists to point out the errors within the Christian faith. I hope this blog entry serves as an embarrassment to atheists and so-called "atheist scholarship."

I’d also like to argue for the Bible’s clear teaching on Salvation. I’ll post what I believe is a faithful summary of its teaching and if Matthies or anyone else wants to debate it then we’ll be waiting. I only ask that the atheists put on their little thinking caps and not repeat the horrendous errors we’ve seen above.

SALVATION
JESUS RESCUES HIS PEOPLE FROM SIN


by J.I. Packer

Salvation is found in no one else, for there is no other name under heaven given to men by which we must be saved. ACTS 4:12

The master theme of the Christian gospel is salvation. Salvation is a picture-word of wide application that expresses the idea of rescue from jeopardy and misery into a state of safety. The gospel proclaims that the God who saved Israel from Egypt, Jonah from the fish’s belly, the psalmist from death, and the soldiers from drowning (Exod. 15:2; Jon. 2:9; Ps. 116:6; Acts 27:31), saves all who trust Christ from sin and sin’s consequences.

As these earthly deliverances were wholly God’s work, and not instances of people saving themselves with God’s help, so it is with salvation from sin and death. “For it is by grace you have been saved, through faith—and this not from yourselves, it [either faith as such or salvation and faith together] is the gift of God” (Eph. 2:8). “Salvation comes from the LORD” (Jon. 2:9).

What are believers saved from? From their former position under the wrath of God, the dominion of sin, and the power of death (Rom. 1:18; 3:9; 5:21); from their natural condition of being mastered by the world, the flesh, and the devil (John 8:23-24; Rom. 8:7-8; 1 John 5:19); from the fears that a sinful life engenders (Rom. 8:15; 2 Tim. 1:7; Heb. 2:14-15), and from the many vicious habits that were part of it (Eph. 4:17-24; 1 Thess. 4:3-8; Titus 2:11-3:6).

How are believers saved from these things? Through Christ, and in Christ. The Father is as concerned to exalt the Son as he is to rescue the lost (John 5:19-23; Phil. 2:9-11; Col. 1:15-18; Heb. 1:4-14), and it is as true to say that the elect were appointed for Christ the beloved Son as it is to say that Christ was appointed for the beloved elect (Matt. 3:17; 17:5; Col. 1:13; 3:12; 1 Pet. 1:20; 1 John 4:9-10).

Our salvation involves, first, Christ dying for us and, second, Christ living in us (John 15:4; 17:26; Col. 1:27) and we living in Christ, united with him in his death and risen life (Rom. 6:3-10; Col. 2:12, 20; 3:1). This vital union, which is sustained by the Spirit from the divine side and by faith from our side, and which is formed in and through our new birth, presupposes covenantal union in the sense of our eternal election in Christ (Eph. 1:4-6). Jesus was foreordained to be our representative head and substitutionary sin-bearer (1 Pet. 1:18-20; cf. Matt. 1:21), and we were chosen to be effectually called, conformed to his image, and glorified by the Spirit’s power (Rom. 8:11, 29-30).

Believers are saved from sin and death, but what are they saved for? To live for time and eternity in love to God—Father, Son, and Spirit—and to their neighbors. The source of love for God is knowledge of God’s redeeming love for us, and the evidence of love for God is neighbor-love (1 John 4:19-21). God’s purpose, here and hereafter, is to keep expressing his love in Christ to us, and our goal must be to keep expressing our love to the three Persons of the one God by worship and service in Christ. The life of love and adoration is our hope of glory, our salvation now, and our happiness forever.


Salvation is accomplished by the almighty power of the triune God. The Father chose a people, the Son died for them, the Holy Spirit makes Christ's death effective by bringing the elect to faith and repentance, thereby causing them to willingly obey the Gospel. The entire process (election, redemption, regeneration) is the work of God and is by grace alone. Thus God, not man, determines who will be the recipients of the gift of salvation. from CRTA

The Westminster Confession of Faith

Chapter X

Of Effectual Calling

I. All those whom God hath predestinated unto life, and those only, He is pleased, in His appointed time, effectually to call,[1] by His Word and Spirit,[2] out of that state of sin and death, in which they are by nature to grace and salvation, by Jesus Christ;[3] enlightening their minds spiritually and savingly to understand the things of God,[4] taking away their heart of stone, and giving unto them an heart of flesh;[5] renewing their wills, and, by His almighty power, determining them to that which is good,[6] and effectually drawing them to Jesus Christ:[7] yet so, as they come most freely, being made willing by His grace.[8]
II. This effectual call is of God's free and special grace alone, not from anything at all foreseen in man,[9] who is altogether passive therein, until, being quickened and renewed by the Holy Spirit,[10] he is thereby enabled to answer this call, and to embrace the grace offered and conveyed in it.[11]
III. Elect infants, dying in infancy, are regenerated, and saved by Christ, through the Spirit,[12] who works when, and where, and how He pleases:[13] so also are all other elect persons who are incapable of being outwardly called by the ministry of the Word.[14]
IV. Others, not elected, although they may be called by the ministry of the Word,[15] and may have some common operations of the Spirit,[16] yet they never truly come unto Christ, and therefore cannot be saved:[17] much less can men, not professing the Christian religion, be saved in any other way whatsoever, be they never so diligent to frame their lives according to the light of nature, and the laws of that religion they do profess.[18] And to assert and maintain that they may, is very pernicious, and to be detested.[19]

Chapter XI

Of Justification

I. Those whom God effectually calls, He also freely justifies;[1] not by infusing righteousness into them, but by pardoning their sins, and by accounting and accepting their persons as righteous; not for any thing wrought in them, or done by them, but for Christ's sake alone; nor by imputing faith itself, the act of believing, or any other evangelical obedience to them, as their righteousness; but by imputing the obedience and satisfaction of Christ unto them,[2] they receiving and resting on Him and His righteousness by faith; which faith they have not of themselves, it is the gift of God.[3]
II. Faith, thus receiving and resting on Christ and His righteousness, is the alone instrument of justification:[4] yet is it not alone in the person justified, but is ever accompanied with all other saving graces, and is no dead faith, but works by love.[5]
III. Christ, by His obedience and death, did fully discharge the debt of all those that are thus justified, and did make a proper, real and full satisfaction to His Father's justice in their behalf.[6] Yet, in as much as He was given by the Father for them;[7] and His obedience and satisfaction accepted in their stead;[8] and both, freely, not for any thing in them; their justification is only of free grace;[9] that both the exact justice, and rich grace of God might be glorified in the justification of sinners.[10]
IV. God did, from all eternity, decree to justify all the elect,[11] and Christ did, in the fullness of time, die for their sins, and rise again for their justification:[12] nevertheless, they are not justified, until the Holy Spirit does, in due time, actually apply Christ unto them.[13]
V. God does continue to forgive the sins of those that are justified;[14] and although they can never fall from the sate of justification,[15] yet they may, by their sins, fall under God's fatherly displeasure, and not have the light of His countenance restored unto them, until they humble themselves, confess their sins, beg pardon, and renew their faith and repentance.[16]
VI. The justification of believers under the Old Testament was, in all these respects, one and the same with the justification of believers under the New Testament.[17]

Chapter XII

Of Adoption

All those that are justified, God vouchsafes, in and for His only Son Jesus Christ, to make partakers of the grace of adoption,[1] by which they are taken into the number, and enjoy the liberties and privileges of the children of God,[2] have His name put upon them,[3] receive the spirit of adoption,[4] have access to the throne of grace with boldness,[5] are enabled to cry, Abba, Father,[6] are pitied,[7] protected,[8] provided for,[9] and chastened by Him as by a Father:[10] yet never cast off,[11] but sealed to the day of redemption;[12] and inherit the promises,[13] as heirs of everlasting salvation.[14]

Chapter XIII

Of Sanctification

I. They, who are once effectually called, and regenerated, having a new heart, and a new spirit created in them, are further sanctified, really and personally, through the virtue of Christ's death and resurrection,[1] by His Word and Spirit dwelling in them:[2] the dominion of the whole body of sin is destroyed,[3] and the several lusts thereof are more and more weakened and mortified;[4] and they more and more quickened and strengthened in all saving graces,[5] to the practice of true holiness, without which no man shall see the Lord.[6]
II. This sanctification is throughout, in the whole man;[7] yet imperfect in this life, there abiding still some remnants of corruption in every part;[8] whence arises a continual and irreconcilable war, the flesh lusting against the Spirit, and the Spirit against the flesh.[9]
III. In which war, although the remaining corruption, for a time, may much prevail;[10] yet, through the continual supply of strength from the sanctifying Spirit of Christ, the regenerate part does overcome;[11] and so, the saints grow in grace,[12] perfecting holiness in the fear of God.[13]

Chapter XIV

Of Saving Faith

I. The grace of faith, whereby the elect are enabled to believe to the saving of their souls,[1] is the work of the Spirit of Christ in their hearts,[2] and is ordinarily wrought by the ministry of the Word,[3] by which also, and by the administration of the sacraments, and prayer, it is increased and strengthened.[4]
II. By this faith, a Christian believes to be true whatsoever is revealed in the Word, for the authority of God Himself speaking therein;[5] and acts differently upon that which each particular passage thereof contains; yielding obedience to the commands,[6] trembling at the threatenings,[7] and embracing the promises of God for this life, and that which is to come.[8] But the principal acts of saving faith are accepting, receiving, and resting upon Christ alone for justification, sanctification, and eternal life, by virtue of the covenant of grace.[9]
III. This faith is different in degrees, weak or strong;[10] may often and many ways assailed, and weakened, but gets the victory:[11] growing up in many to the attainment of a full assurance, through Christ,[12] who is both the author and finisher of our faith.[13]

Chapter XV

Of Repentance unto Life

I. Repentance unto life is an evangelical grace,[1] the doctrine whereof is to be preached by every minister of the Gospel, as well as that of faith in Christ.[2]
II. By it, a sinner, out of the sight and sense not only of the danger, but also of the filthiness and odiousness of his sins, as contrary to the holy nature, and righteous law of God; and upon the apprehension of His mercy in Christ to such as are penitent, so grieves for, and hates his sins, as to turn from them all unto God,[3] purposing and endeavouring to walk with Him in all the ways of His commandments.[4]
III. Although repentance is not to be rested in, as any satisfaction for sin, or any cause of the pardon thereof,[5] which is the act of God's free grace in Christ,[6] yet it is of such necessity to all sinners, that none may expect pardon without it.[7]
IV. As there is no sin so small, but it deserves damnation;[8] so there is no sin so great, that it can bring damnation upon those who truly repent.[9]
V. Men ought not to content themselves with a general repentance, but it is every man's duty to endeavor to repent of his particular sins, particularly.[10]
VI. As every man is bound to make private confession of his sins to God, praying for the pardon thereof;[11] upon which, and the forsaking of them, he shall find mercy;[12] so he that scandelizeth his brother, or the Church of Christ, ought to be willing, by a private or public confession and sorrow for his sin, to declare his repentance to those that are offended;[13] who are thereupon to be reconciled to him, and in love to receive him.[14]

Chapter XXXII

Of the State of Men after Death, and of the Resurrection of the Dead

III. the bodies of the just, by His Spirit, unto honor; and be made conformable to His own glorious body.[7]

Romans 8: 28 And we know that to them that love God all things work together for good, even to them that are called according to his purpose.
29 For whom he foreknew, he also foreordained to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren:
30 and whom he foreordained, them he also called: and whom he called, them he also justified: and whom he justified, them he also glorified.
31 What then shall we say to these things? If God is for us, who is against us?
32 He that spared not his own Son, but delivered him up for us all, how shall he not also with him freely give us all things?
33 Who shall lay anything to the charge of God's elect? It is God that justifieth;
34 who is he that condemneth? It is Christ Jesus that died, yea rather, that was raised from the dead, who is at the right hand of God, who also maketh intercession for us.
35 Who shall separate us from the love of Christ? shall tribulation, or anguish, or persecution, or famine, or nakedness, or peril, or sword?
36 Even as it is written, For thy sake we are killed all the day long; We were accounted as sheep for the slaughter.
37 Nay, in all these things we are more than conquerors through him that loved us.
38 For I am persuaded, that neither death, nor life, nor angels, nor principalities, nor things present, nor things to come, nor powers,
39 nor height, nor depth, nor any other creature, shall be able to separate us from the love of God, which is in Christ Jesus our Lord.

It's a Miracle!



The Miracle of St. Hank

Last summer, while scraping old paint from the south side of Olga Norman's house, Billy Farber and his painting crew were flabbergasted to see the uncanny likeness of Hank Hanegraaff, the Bible Answer Man, appear from their scrapings. They quickly painted over it before a Catholic saw it. Just in case, they didn't speak to anyone for a week.

I can't claim originality for this one. It came from my friend Sterling Van Derwerker.

The Slaves Never Got This Chance

Today, the nation protests immigration reform.

A key argument in the current controversy over immigration from the pro-"amnesty" side is that we need migrant workers to "do jobs that US citizens won't do" and not having them will "damage the economy." Look at the jobs, and look at the argument, and consider the pro-slavery arguments of the 19th century. They are remarkably alike. Consider now who, primarily, is making the arguments, and you find interesting bedfellows. The majority of "social progressives" are advancing the above argument, but, in the 19th century they would NEVER have advanced such an argument.

There are better ways to argue one's position on immigration, whatever that might be, beginning with opposition to illegal immigration, because it degrades the persons doing the jobs, the jobs, remember, that us lowly citizens won't do. We have dances to attend, mint julips to sip, and plantations to manage. It takes advantage of their willingness to work for low wages. Of course, all of these require a fundamental belief in the worth of a human being, not a belief that we are the sum of our genetic code and random forces, nothing more.

Consider also those who oppose illegal immigration. The battle cry there often revolves around some permutation of "they're taking our jobs and benefits." In other words, the cry is selfish, because they are taking something away from us. I happen to agree with this argument to a certain extent. In my own state, our budget last year was cut in some areas and some programs went unfunded because of budget shortfalls that were due in part to the influx of uninsured, undocumented workers. This year, our state legislature is going to try and go back to refund some if not all of those programs, because they were able to increase the collection of taxes. The point I'm making, however, is that, at its core, this argument is about what they do to harm us, rather than what the institutionalized degradation does to the persons involved in it. After all, if the jobs they are doing are lowly and unwanted, then it naturally follows they must be degrading, if, that is, it is really true these jobs are lowly jobs that we won't do.

Look at the jobs the slaves did in the South. They worked the fields and kept the homes and performed other menial jobs. Look at the jobs we "need" illegals to do: work the fields and keep the homes. Of course now we call them "migrant workers" and "laborers" in the field not "field hands (and I'm only using hands because I refuse to use the n-word), and members of the "cleaning industry" (not house workers, and I'm only using workers here to avoid using the n-word').

The only real difference is that they came here on their own, we didn't bring them here, and we pay them. On the other hand,they come here, get involved in immigration scams in which they are told they can stay, but really can't and end up worse off than when they came here. Some divorce to come here, because coming here single is easier than being married, but then don't remarry when their (former) spouse arrives, because we don't respect marriage ourselves, or they can't find their spouses. So, we end up having some hand in dividing families. Sound familar? It should. We're just not forcing it upon them like we did in the Old South. Not every abolition society was as altruisitic as one would be believe. There are reports from the North about the slums created by runaway slaves who made it to the North and had to live in crowded hovels and who could barely survive. Sound familar? Ever been to a home populated by the new immigrants? Many slaves reported they didn't want to leave their masters. Sound familar? It should, for today many are in the streets telling us they want to stay and keep their jobs--the ones the rest of us are to high and mighty to do it seems. I fear we're repeating our history.

If both of these groups arguing about what to do would abandon their 19th century thinking and think biblically, they would at least start with a premise (the worth of humans being created in God's image) and seek to make laws that alleviate the degradation of these persons. Did we learn nothing from the 19th century? Have we learned nothing from Dr. King? This is NOT an easy problem to solve. It will not go away over night, but surely we have enough of a history with these issues that we can muster the insight to resolve it without doing to the Mexicans and Latin Americans what we did to the Africans and their descendents.

Strange Ignition!

Strange BaptistFire is now up and running, ignited with Dustin Seger’s introductory post. Check out the about page also. Don’t forget to go ahead and subsribe to the RSS feed as well!

Christian Growth In Times Of Controversy

I recently read the latest volume in John Piper's The Swans Are Not Silent series, and in it he mentions something that we don't often hear today. We're often told that we should try to avoid doctrinal disputes and separation from moral error, for example, in order to have more unity, which will lead to revival. But some of the greatest times of Christian growth in history have been times of much controversy and division. John Piper writes:

"The witness of church history is that seasons of controversy have often been seasons of growth and strength. This was the case in the first centuries of the church. Most Christians today would be stunned if they knew that the battle for the deity of Christ was not a battle between the great force of orthodoxy, on the one hand, and marginal heretics, on the other. It was a battle in which at times the majority of the church leaders in the world were unorthodox. Yet the church grew in spite of controversy and persecution. Indeed I believe we must say that the growth of the true church in those days was because of leaders like Athanasius, who took a stand for the sake of truth. Without controversy there would have been no gospel, and therefore no church....The time of the Protestant Reformation was a time of great controversy...with controversy at the center, the Great Awakening brought unprecedented life and growth to churches in the American colonies and Britain....The same thing can be said of the Second Great Awakening....The point of these illustrations from church history is to lay to rest the notion that powerful spiritual awakening can only come when controversy is put aside. Though I would not want to press it as a strategy, history seems to suggest the opposite. When there is a great movement of God to bring revival and reformation to his church, controversy becomes part of the human process. It would not be far off to say with Parker Williamson that at least in some instances the controversy was not just a result but a means of the revitalization of the church....awakening and reformation are caused and carried by more clear perception of the glories of Christ and the repugnance of sin; and when these are seen more clearly and spoken of more precisely, division is more likely than when Christ is spoken of in vague terms and people care little for his name....as we learn from the heroes of our faith, let us resolve to renounce all controversy-loving pride and all controversy-fearing cowardice." (Contending For Our All [Wheaton, Illinois: Crossway Books, 2006], pp. 23, 26-27, 29-31, 35)

The Revealed Religion

It appears that we have a completely-novel trend at Debunking Christianity. The team has, for the moment, abandoned their memoirs in order to pursue the critiquing of the claims of Christianity. Aaron M. Rossetti initiates this new practice by rightly choosing to examine the ultimate authority of the Christian worldview: the Holy Scriptures.

By way of comment (for space, I won’t include the paragraph-by-paragraph citation of Aaron’s post like I normally would, but I will number this in the order that his arguments are presented and suggest that you refer to his post for the context):

1. The Christian doctrine in question concerning the Scriptures (Sola Scripture), contrary to Aaron’s assertion, does not affirm that Scripture is the only “authority” or the only thing that contains “truth.” Rather, Scripture is the sole infallible rule of faith for the believer. Scripture is the only ultimate and infallible authority. Other authorities exist but are subject to fallibility. Other truths exists, but nothing which contradicts Scripture is true, for Scripture is the ultimate standard.

2. The Bible has a focus: it tells the story of God’s history of redeeming his people and causing them to proclaim his excellencies (1 Peter 2:9). The Bible, therefore, gives us information which is relevant to that focus.

3. Aaron makes some common Romanistic assumptions in his posts. He critiques what is, in theological terms, Sola Scriptura, but he assumes the principles of Romanists, adopting a position which, actually, opposes the doctrine at hand. In other words, he builds up his own strawmen to knock down.

For instance, the canon was not closed in the 4th century. The canon was closed when John put his pen down. Furthermore, man does not determine the canon. God determines the canon, and man recognizes what God has determined. His assertion that Christians claim that “those making the decisions” concerning the canon (as if anyone one group made the “decision”) were “infallible” is purely Romanistic. In critiquing the doctrine that the Scriptures are to be the sole infallible rule of faith for believers, Aaron is critiquing Sola Scriptura. Yet in critiquing Sola Scriptura he utilizes Romanistic assumptions! Does Aaron not know that Roman Catholics deny this doctrine?

4. Aaron incorrectly uses the term “faith.”

5. The doctrine of Sola Scriptura concerns the time after the Scriptures have been given and therefore does not concern the time when the Apostles were alive presenting the gospel both by letter and by word. This does not mean that Biblical infallibility was not a “chief cornerstone” during this time, as Aaron states. Surely the infallibility of the Old Testament was important to early Christians!

6. The statement, “Christians, as divided in doctrinal stances as they appear to be, would barely have a shred of commonality apart from the bible” is altogether false. If he means that, apart from the Bible, there would be no Christianity; well, he would be right, in that Christianity is a revealed religion. But if he is asserting that the only commonality between Christians is the Bible then such an assertion is terribly ignorant. Is the deity of Christ no place of commonality? Is the centrality of the cross no place of commonality? Is the bodily resurrection of Christ no place of commonality? Is the gospel of Christ no place of commonality? Is the doctrine of the Trinity no place of commonality? Or, does Aaron honestly think that one can deny any of these and be reasonably considered a “Christian”?

7. Again, the claim is not that “There is no authority for truth outside of the Bible.” Rather, the claim is that there is no ultimate or infallible authority outside of the Bible.

8. Aaron’s interpretation of 2 Timothy 3:16 is terribly lacking. Again, he argues like a Romanist. Paul’s argument is not “The canon of Scripture that you hold today is sufficient.” Rather, his argument is that if it is Scripture, then it is theopneustos (”God-breathed”); and if it is theopneustos then it is profitable to equip. So Aaron’s claim that “this verse does not state that the New Testament we hold today is the inerrant or inspired word of God” is in error. The New Testament meets the standards of being Scripture, and is therefore, theopneustos, and, by consequence, infallible.

9. Aaron’s handling on the definition of theopneustos is, like everything else, terribly lacking. The usage is not comparable to his illustration that “An author named Tom is inspired by another author named Jim.” God did not breath into something already existent. Rather he breathed out the very object. God is wholly and completely the source, initiation, and author of Scripture; and Scripture, therefore, coming from God, is without error. Furthermore, the text at hand (2 Tim 3:16-17) states that Scripture is sufficient to equip the man of God for “every good work.” Can an error-filled document do this?

10. In all of Aaron’s Scripture citations, he never once cites 2 Peter 3:16, where Paul unequivocally recognizes the writings of Paul to be Scripture. He also ignores those citations, such as Acts 17:11 and 2 Peter 1, where we see the Scriptures receiving their proper usage.

11. His post concludes that the New Testament no where connects Scripture with “the Word of God.” This is based on, no doubt, a quick concordance search and the notion that a connection is made only if a verse states explicitly, “The terms ‘word of God’ and ‘Scripture’ are used interchangeably.” But in the contexts of all of these passages, the Word was received, it was spoken, and it was written down. Furthermore, Aaron chooses to ignore the Old Testament usage. Surely the New Testament is referring to the same thing as the Old when it uses the phrase “Word of God.” And what was the Word of God to Old Testament Israel? It was his spoken truth that was communicated through the prophets and later written down by the authors of Scripture.

Yet, let’s say that Scripture never makes such a connection. Or, let’s say that Scripture never declares its own infallibility. So what? As long as Scripture does not deny that it is infallible, is there a problem? Aaron’s discussion assumes the Scriptures to be of divine origin, and he searches to see if the Scriptures are consistent with such a notion. And, as long as they do not deny or contradict such a presupposition, I do not see it to be a problem that they would not declare their own sufficiency (though, in fact, they do). The presupposition is, after all, a presupposition. The Christian worldview relies on divine revelation, and in assuming diving revelation it consequently assumes infallibility and inerrancy. So, the presupposition that the Scriptures are divinely given is the same presupposition that they are infallible. To presuppose the one is to presuppose the other.

12. Aaron’s ripping 1 Corinthians 4:20 out of its context in order to support his agenda is absolutely nauseating. I’ll let the reader determine if there is warrant to his usage of it.

13. Aaron concludes his post, once again, with an incorrect definition of faith. I suppose that this oft-repeated error of his is a good closing demonstration of the post that precedes it. It is the cherry-error on top of a monstrous banana-split arrangement of deficiencies.

Evan May.

Sunday, April 30, 2006

Israel in Egypt

I have already commented on Dagood’s utterly lame attempt to discredit the Exodus.

http://triablogue.blogspot.com/2006/04/plagues-of-egypt.html

Here I’d round out my discussion by drawing attention to a major monograph of the subject which Dagood completely ignores.

*************************************************************************

Israel in Egypt: The Evidence for the Authenticity of the Exodus Tradition
Journal of the Evangelical Theological Society, Dec 1999 by Aling, Charles

Israel in Egypt: The Evidence for the Authenticity of the Exodus Tradition. By James K. Hoffmeier. New York: Oxford University, 1997, 224 pp., $35.00.

Hoffmeier's new work is a necessary corrective to the current trend in Biblical scholarship characterized by the heavy use of anthropological and sociological models and by a hypercritical attitude toward the OT. His stated aim is to follow the evidence where it leads, and he concludes that there is no need for skepticism regarding the essential historicity of the rise of Joseph to power in Egypt, the sojourn and bondage of Israel in Egypt, and the accounts of the exodus.

Hoffmeier's first two chapters present an excellent summary of the current state of the debate over Israel's origins. Hoffmeier brings together a thorough knowledge of the critical literary studies of the OT and the latest historical and archaeological data. The melding of such materials is indeed a strongpoint of the book throughout. Hoffmeier concludes that much of the skeptical attitude toward a conquest model is based on current theories of historiography more than on evidence.

In chap. 3 Hoffmeier summarizes the textual and archaeological evidence for a Semitic presence in late Middle Kingdom Egypt and beyond. His collection of virtually all the available major sources makes it clear that there was a definite Semitic presence in Egypt in the times required for Israel's sojourn.

Chapter 4 deals with the Joseph story, again from both the viewpoint of literary criticism and Egyptology. The chapter is brief, hitting only certain highpoints of this rich Biblical passage. Hoffmeier defends the historicity of the account. Perhaps the best part of the chapter is the section dealing with the Egyptian proper names, while the weakest is that dealing with the status and titles of Joseph. While seeming to accept Ward's denial that Joseph was ever vizier, Hoffmeier does not discuss the possibility that Joseph was chief steward of the king, nor does he attempt to date the career of Joseph.

Hoffmeier's fifth chapter, on the details of the Israelite sojourn in Egypt after Joseph, is excellent. Particularly valuable is his discussion of the toponymns in the account. He is perhaps a bit too hasty in dismissing Tell el-Maskhuta as Pithom on the basis of lack of New Kingdom habitation evidence. If the bondage began earlier than the New Kingdom, under the Hyksos, this site could well be Pithom.

Chapter 6, on Moses and the exodus, presents much important material. Hoffmeier points out the inadequacy of claiming the birth account of Moses is based on that of Sargon of Akkad, but does not call our attention to parallels between the Moses stories and other ancient texts such as the Story of Sinuhe. The main argument of the chapter is that the ten plagues were not so much attacks on individual gods of Egypt as a frontal assault on the power of Pharaoh. Hoffmeier is correct in denying that each plague was an attack on a particular deity, a view held by some (although not I, as Hoffmeier claims in a note: see my Egypt and Bible History, p. 106).

The last three chapters deal with the complex topic of Exodus geography. Hoffmeier attempts, using his own good personal knowledge of the eastern delta, to locate the places named in the account where possible. He identifies the Yam Suph with one of the lakes along the Isthmus of Suez, but stresses that absolute identification is not currently possible.

Hoffmeier's book is an important contribution to the study of the Hebrew experience in Egypt. Its two major strengths are the author's powerful refutation of hypercritical views on the narrative and his presentation of the latest Egyptological data.

Distortions Of John 6

There's an ongoing thread on the eucharist on the Christian Apologetics and Research Ministry (CARM) boards. Some of the common Roman Catholic arguments are repeated. John 6 is part of the discussion.

Let's keep in mind the larger context of John 6 that we've mentioned here in recent days. John 6 occurred before the eucharist came into existence. Jesus repeatedly mentions faith (verses 29, 35, 40, 47, 63), but never says anything of the eucharist. Jesus tells us that our hunger and thirst are satisfied by coming to Him and believing in Him (verse 35), not by some participation in a transubstantiated eucharist later on, after we've come to faith. Wine, one of the elements of the eucharist, is never mentioned in the discourse. Jesus' other miracles involving the physical, such as turning water into wine, resulted in physical evidence of a miracle, whereas the Catholics on the CARM board are telling us that a transformation of the eucharistic elements into Jesus' body and blood gives us no physical evidence of a transformation.

From these few considerations alone, the Roman Catholic perspective on this issue seems unlikely. Are we to believe that Jesus was teaching that participation in a transubstantiated eucharist is necessary for salvation, yet there was no eucharist yet, He never mentions the eucharist, He refers to something other than the eucharist as satisfying our hunger and thirst (John 6:35), He never mentions one of the elements of the eucharist (wine), and the supposed physical transformation leaves no physical evidence?

As weak as the Roman Catholic position is when we take these factors into account, it gets even worse the more Catholics attempt to justify their interpretation. In the CARM thread linked above, we see more of the common Catholic misrepresentations repeated.

We're told that Jesus surely wouldn't speak to first century Jews about eating flesh and drinking blood if He didn't have actual consumption of flesh and blood in mind. But using disturbing language to make a point was common in discourse at that time, and references to consuming a person (or blood in particular) were sometimes used, including among ancient Jews (see Craig Keener, The Gospel of John: A Commentary, Vol. 1 [Peabody, Massachusetts: Hendrickson Publishers, 2003], pp. 687-689). Jewish tradition even specifically refers to the eating of the Messiah. Thus, a metaphorical reading of John 6 is consistent with the ancient Jewish context.

Somebody in the CARM thread mentions John 6:66, suggesting that people left Jesus because of His teaching of transubstantiation. The immediate context of their departure from Jesus is His teaching about His own foreknowledge and predestination (John 6:64-65). Catholics often overlook the verses immediately before verse 66, and go back to what Jesus was saying earlier in the passage. Why should we do that? We don't know all of what was motivating the people in John 6:66. They may have left because what Jesus said in verses 64-65 convicted them of the fact that they didn't truly believe in Him. They remained while Jesus repeatedly mentioned consuming flesh and blood. They left when He made His comments in verses 64-65.

It's also possible that they did think Jesus was referring to actual eating and drinking of flesh and blood. Does it follow, then, that Jesus would have tried to keep those people from leaving Him if He really wasn't referring to actual eating and drinking? No, it doesn't. He knew that these people had never really believed in Him (John 6:64). And contrary to what Catholics often suggest, Jesus didn't always clarify His teachings to those who rejected Him. In Matthew 13:10-17, Jesus explains that He purposely kept some people from understanding what He was teaching. In John 2:19-22, Jesus refers to His body as a "temple", which many people misunderstood as a reference to the actual temple in Jerusalem. He didn't explain to these people what He really meant. We read in Mark 14:56-59 that some people, long after Jesus had made the statement in John 2:19, were still thinking that He had referred to the actual temple in Jerusalem. And in John 21:22-23, we read of another instance of Jesus saying something that was misunderstood by some people, with the misunderstanding leading to the false conclusion that the apostle John wouldn't die. Yet, Jesus didn't clarify the statement. It was John who clarified it decades later in his gospel. (Any suggestion that John didn't clarify chapter 6 in his gospel only begs the question. How do Catholics know that passages such as John 6:35 and 6:63 aren't clarifications of what Jesus meant?) When Catholic apologists claim that it would be unprecedented for Jesus not to further clarify His message to the people in John 6:66, if He wasn't referring to actual eating and drinking, they're mistaken. He could have been following the same pattern we see in Matthew 13:10-17, John 2:19-22, and John 21:22-23. To this day, people continue to disagree about what Jesus meant by some of the parables in Matthew's gospel, for example.

Some Catholics in the CARM thread have quoted some church fathers purportedly referring to a physical presence of Christ in the eucharist. In the comments section of another thread, I've recommended Philip Schaff's church history as a resource for documentation of the variety of eucharistic views that existed among the church fathers. Notice that the Catholics on the CARM board assume a Roman Catholic reading of some texts that could reasonably be read otherwise. For example, we get the common citation of Ignatius of Antioch:

"They abstain from the Eucharist and from prayer, because they confess not the Eucharist to be the flesh of our Saviour Jesus Christ, which suffered for our sins, and which the Father, of His goodness, raised up again." (Letter To The Smyrnaeans, 7)

Yet, earlier in the same letter Ignatius writes:

"Yea, far be it from me to make any mention of them, until they repent and return to a true belief in Christ's passion, which is our resurrection." (5)

Are we to conclude that Ignatius believed that Jesus' passion (or our faith in His passion) is transubstantiated into our resurrection under the appearance of remaining Jesus' passion (or our faith in His passion)? There's nothing in Ignatius that tells us much about his view of the eucharist. Catholics can't claim to know that Ignatius agreed with their view on this issue.

The Catholics at CARM don't mention the many patristic passages that contradict what they believe on this subject. Some of the earliest patristic interpretations of John 6 refer to the passage as metaphorical. What we see among the church fathers is a variety of views of the eucharist and a variety of views of John 6, including views that contradict Roman Catholicism.

The Catholic view of John 6 has many problems textually and contextually. The fact that some patristic sources agree with some elements of the Catholic view isn't sufficient to make it convincing. Other patristic sources disagree with the Catholic view, including sources writing as early as the second century.

Time & eternity

Scott Oliphint has written a review of Paul Helm’s recent book on John Calvin’s Ideas. Helm has written a brief rejoinder.

I’d like to say a little more about Oliphant’s review, in particular, the following passage:

***QUOTE***

However, Helm seeks to work out a solution to the tension presented by such an affirmation. After quoting Calvin's commentary on 2 Cor 5:19, Helm avers:

So the truth about atonement, about reconciliation to God, has to be represented to us as if it implied a change in God, and so an inconsistency, an apparent contradiction, in his actions towards us. But in fact there is no change in God; he loves us from eternity. There is however, a change in us a change that occurs as by faith Christ's work is appropriated. The change is not from wrath to grace, but from our belief that we are under wrath to our belief that we are under grace (395).

That is, in order to avoid any idea that God's disposition toward the elect could change (since such an idea, for Helm, would mean that God is not immutable), Helm locates the notions of wrath and grace within our own doxastic structure, and not within the disposition of God. Helm defends his view, by an appeal to God's accommodation. "God accommodates himself by appearing as wrathful until, by faith, the believer apprehends the merit of Christ and as a consequence comes to realize that God has eternally loved him. Before that, though it is true that God eternally loved him the believer has no good reason to think that he does, and plenty of reasons to think that he doesn't, because the wrath of God rests on the sinner" (397).

Helm's construal carries with it significant theological problems, problems with which, as far as I know, Calvin has never been plagued. Most significantly, it seems near impossible to make sense of any biblical (objective) notion of propitiation if all that is askew with respect to God's disposition toward us is our own doxaxtic content.

There are other places where philosophy seems to obscure theological orthodoxy. In his analysis of Calvin on the Incarnation, for example, Helm notes:

Perhaps Calvin's view amounts to this: in the Incarnation there is uniquely powerful and loving and gracious focusing of the divine nature upon human nature, rather than a transfer of the Son of God to a spatio-temporal location. This focusing makes it possible for us to say that God the Son is so present with human nature that there is a union of natures in Jesus Christ. God in the person of the Son, through whom all things are created, focuses upon one unique aspect of his creation in uniting to human nature in the person of Jesus Christ. God the Son was not simply present by being active, he was present by being in union. The character of this divine presence sanctions the language of person with respect to the result (64).

It seems one would be hard pressed to find such language in any of the Reformed orthodox, and certainly in Calvin, and for good reason. It would be difficult to entertain such ideas and at the same time to affirm the historic, biblical notion of Incarnation. Such a notion includes the fact that the second person of the Trinity did not become another person (for then there would be four persons of the Trinity), but rather took on something that was not his, in order to accomplish the Triune God's purposes in salvation. So, says Calvin (in his commentary on Phil. 2:&),

As, then, Christ has one person, consisting of two natures, it is with propriety that Paul says, that he who was the Son of God, - in reality equal to God, did nevertheless lay aside his glory, when he in the flesh manifested himself in the appearance of a servant.

Calvin here echoes biblical language, that the Son of God did come down, taking on human flesh and a human nature, rather than that he focused himself in a unique way, while remaining outside of time.

And it is this eternal/temporal problem that is, perhaps, the underlying culprit in much of Helm's analysis of Calvin. To cite just one more example, in the chapter on divine accommodation, Helm wonders how actual dialogue can take place between God and man:

Under normal circumstances conversational dialogue between people obviously entails the need to be able to reply to what has been said. But can a timeless God react by making a reply to what has been said to him? An obvious objection is that if God is timeless, he cannot believe anything that requires for its sense and appropriateness the occurrence of an event before the formation of the belief. If God literally replies to something that is uttered, his reply will have to occur after what it is a reply to (201).

Helm goes on to note William Alston's conjecture of a reply of simultaneity, which, while it may extricate us from such tensions, would nevertheless involve a relationship of simultaneity between God and his creation which, Helm rightly notes, is a massive question to tackle.

What, then, shall we say about these liabilities? I must confess that virtually every chapter in the book left me wondering if I had ever read Calvin at all. That could well be my problem, but there are a few points that should be said with respect to Helm's 'grid' as he works through Calvin's ideas.

Perhaps the first, and most important, thing to say is that there is no easy synthesis between Calvin's ideas and philosophical concerns. This is undoubtedly the case whenever the latter take conceptual precedence over the former. Helm is aware of this, and does seem to avoid it in some cases, but the citations above indicate that certain philosophical views and concepts can serve to construe at least some of Calvin's ideas in such a way as to be unrecognizable in terms of historic Reformed or Calvinistic theology.

Not only so, but if philosophy is allowed, conceptually, to have its way with theology proper, then it may become difficult to articulate the rest of theology as well. For example, Helm notes that "much of our knowledge of God is due to God's gracious accommodation of himself to our straitened epistemic condition" (184). In thinking of accommodation, therefore, Helm sees it as one, though central, aspect in Calvin of our knowledge of God. However, if Reformed scholasticism is any indicator of Calvin's notion at all, then we would have to affirm that all (not much) of our knowledge of God is by way of God's accommodation. God's own knowledge, according to the scholastics, was archetypal, with reference to himself, and ectypal, with reference to things outside himself. Our knowledge, on the other hand, is never archetypal but is exhaustively, from first to last, ectypal. If this construal is dependent in any way on Calvin's understanding of God's accommodation, then we can avoid, at least initially, such ambiguous locutions as whether or not certain language of God is 'literal' or metaphorical, and begin instead by understanding that, (as in the distinction between God in se and God quoad nos), while there is definite continuity between God's accommodated revelation to us (which is ectypal), and his archetypal knowledge, the latter is never ours, and could never be.

Not only so, but we would be hard pressed to question, on the basis of biblical testimony and Reformed theology, whether or not God actually came down to his creation, whether he actually had conversations, complete with subsequent replies, with his creatures, whether his disposition toward us, at one time, was wrath and, at another subsequent time when we were, by faith, in Christ, grace. We are not hard pressed to question these because of philosophical naivete, necessarily, but rather because God and his relationship to his creation, as expressed in Scripture, is the beginning point of our philosophizing.

http://reformation21.org/Shelf_Life/Shelf_Life/181/?vobId=2951&pm=434

***END-QUOTE***

By way of comment:

i) I agree with Oliphint that the statement which he has quoted from p64 is an inadequate formulation of the hypostatic union.

Having said that, I don’t necessarily agree with Oliphint regarding the source of the problem or its solution.

ii) Throughout his literary career, Helm has used the history of ideas as a vehicle to explore and express his own position. By a dialectical process of comparison, contrast, and elimination, Helm guides the reader through the respective options to arrive at the position he himself commends.

This means, however, that if you’re going to evaluate Helm’s own position, you need to isolate his position and distinguish it from the exposition of the philosopher or theologian whom he is using as a conversation partner.

This is not something that Oliphant has clearly delineated.

iii) The offending passage on p64 is not a direct statement of Helm’s own position, but an interpretive summary of Calvin’s.

iv) Moreover, it’s just one paragraph in a chapter some 45 pages long. So this is very far from representing the whole of Calvin’s own view, much less Helm’s own view.

When Oliphint says that “Helm’s” position (is it Helm’s, or Calvin’s?) is at odds with traditional Reformed theology, what, exactly, is he referring to?

Is Oliphint claiming that Calvin and Reformed Orthodoxy, unlike Helm, did not subscribe to God’s timeless eternality?

v) Regarding the alleged transition from the wrath of God to the grace of God, once again I agree with Oliphint that it would be insufficient to treat that distinction as a merely subjective distinction in the mind of a believer or unbeliever.

Whether that is Helm’s own position is, however, a separate question.

In addition, it doesn’t follow that the best way to objectify this distinction is to relocate it in time rather than the mind of the sinner.

The best way of formulating this distinction is not in terms of a temporal transition, but in perspectival and counterfactual terms.

The elect are sinners. They are, as such, deserving of judgment. Left to their own devices, they would be objects of divine wrath.

Yet in the decree of God, and in the grace of God, they are never actually objects of wrath, but rather, objects of mercy.

God knows what they deserve, but God doesn’t give them what they deserve. God adopts and blesses the elect despite of what they deserve.

There is also a transition in the life of the elect as they pass from unregeneracy to regeneracy.

If that passage were not to occur, they would be objects of wrath rather than grace. But the decree to elect a subset of sinners includes a decree to redeem them and renew them in time.

God’s view of the elect is not irrespective of propitiation; to the contrary: because they are the elect of God, God, in Christ, has made propitiation on their behalf and in their stead.

Incidentally, this is become a big deal in certain Reformed circles because it goes back to an intramural debate within Dutch-American theology between Hoeksema and Van Til.

vi) Although the archetypal/ectypal distinction is valid, it is unclear how invoking that distinction sidesteps the question of whether God-talk is literal or metaphorical.

A more promising line of argument would be to distinguish between literal analogies (e.g., God as king, judge) and figurative analogies (God as father, shepherd). And even figurative analogies have a literal element.

vii) Then there’s God’s relation to time. As Oliphint rightly notes, this is the underlying bone of contention.

But there are a number of series difficulties with Oliphint’s admittedly brief reply:

a) Helm has written quite a bit on this particular subject. Some of these occasional pieces were anthologized in his Eternal God. But that was published almost 20 years ago, and since its publication Helm has written a good deal more.

In a book like Calvin’s Ideas, Helm takes a lot of this prior discussion for granted. He brings his conclusions to bear, rather than reiterating all of the supporting argumentation. But to judge by Olipiant’s criticisms, it doesn’t look like he is conversant with this material, for he is raising objections which Helm has repeatedly addressed elsewhere.

b) In addition, it doesn’t conduce to either philosophical or theological clarity to stake out a position on time and eternity unless you have a philosophy of time as well as a model of divine eternality.

Once again, it doesn’t look like Oliphint has bothered to acquaint himself with the standard literature.

There are several questions at issue. Not only is there the issue of God’s relation to time, but the nature of time itself. For example, is the phenomenology of passage mental or extramental?

This is pertinent to the question of what makes a dialogue a genuine dialogue irrespective of whether one party to that conversation is divine.

Oliphint seems to be operating with an A-theory of time. Has he ever bothered to read up on the opposing literature? For a few standard expositions, cf.:

R. Le Poidevin, Travels in Four Dimensions (Oxford 2003)

D. Mellor, Real Time II (Routledge 1998)

L. Oaklander, The Ontology of Time (Prometheus Books 2004).

d) What necessary conditions must be met to have an “actual” conversation, complete with “subsequent” relies?

Is it necessary for God to enter into our own timeframe?

The only necessary condition is for the effect to be temporal and sequential, not the cause. The reply is effected in time, and effected at a particular time—a delayed effect.

From this it doesn’t follow that God must be in time in order for him to will and to enact a time-indexed reply.

The abstract sequence of give-and-take is already given in the decree. God merely instantiates the teleological order of his decree. The questions and answers are intercalated in time in the same way that the order of all temporal events is foreordained from eternity and instantiated in time, with a series of second-causes and effects.

e) This is also germane to the timing of the Incarnation. If the Son of God is timeless, then there was never a time when he was discarnate. And yet the Incarnation can still be effected in time, having a point of origin in time.

f) Oliphint’s objections aren’t limited to God’s relation to time, but apparently take in God’s relation to space.

What does Oliphint mean by insisting that God comes “down” to us in the Incarnation. Surely this is a figurative image.

Does God come down to North Americans, but comes up to Aussies?

Again, Oliphint is speaking as if the sensible world were a container which God must penetrate.

It is only natural for us to spatialize time in order to conceptualize temporal relations. Thus we say that God is either “outside” of time or “inside” of time.

But these are metaphors—important metaphors, but metaphors all the same.

I appreciate Oliphint’s concern to safeguard the integrity of the Incarnation. That’s nonnegotiable.

But by the very same token, you cannot rely on picturesque language to formulate or ground the incarnation; otherwise you will end up with a merely figurative Incarnation.

It is precisely because the hypostatic union is far more than a metaphor that we cannot reply on metaphors alone to capture the hypostatic union.

We need to cash out these metaphors into something literally true.

viii) Then there’s the hermeneutical question. Oliphant faults Helm for failing to do justice to Biblical depictions of God.

This, too, is a central concern, since Protestant theological method commits us to sola Scriptura as our rule of faith.

Yet Oliphint’s criticism is rather disappointing.

a) At a time when open theism is a live option; what is more, at time when even Mormonism is becoming mainstream, it will hardly do for a Calvinist to rest his case with the dynamic language of narrative theology.

b) Either Scripture addresses the question of God’s relation to time or it does not. If not, if Scripture is silent on this issue, then this becomes an issue of philosophical theology rather than exegetical theology.

If Scripture is neutral on this question, then an answer, however provisional, must come from natural revelation and natural theology rather than revealed theology.

Assuming, for the sake of argument, that this is so, then whatever side Oliphint chooses to come down on will be underdetermined by Scripture.

There are only two basic options. You can only opt for one, or the other, or suspend judgment.

In that event, Oliphint is in the same boat as Helm. He can choose to sit in the stern or the prow, but he is not exempt from the question at hand, and by staking out one position, he is having to argue on the same level as his opponent. It’s not as if Oliphant occupies some privileged position above the fray.

c) But if Scripture does speak to this issue, then what does it say? There are both direct and indirect data.

There are verses which indicate that God is independent of the temporal order (Gen 1:1 Cor 2:7; 2 Tim 1:9; Titus 1:2-3; Jude 25), as well as prooftexts for divine immutability (e.g. Num 23:19; 1 Sam 15:29; Ps 102:26-28; Mal 3:6; Jas 1:17).

Now, there may be a danger of overinterpreting these verses, of pressing them into the service of a more specialized question than they were intended to answer.

But if we wish to begin with Scripture, such passages apparently favor the eternalist construction over against the temporalist construction.

d) Then there are verses which ascribe certain properties or relations to God, often in contrast to the temporal order, viz., omniscience, foreknowledge, foreordination.

The question is whether these attributes are compatible with a temporal God. If not, how do we harmonize one verse with another?

e) To say that we begin with Scripture, while commendable, doesn’t solve any problems because it doesn’t point us in any particular direction.

For even if Scripture is our starting-point, and rightly so, there is more than one starting point within Scripture itself. There is Scripture, and then there are scriptures.

In many respects, the temporalist/eternalist debate parallels the Arminian/Calvinist debate.

Do we begin with a particular genre? With the epistles? Or with historical narrative?

Even within historical narrative, what is the narrative strategy of the narrator? If, at certain points in the narrative, he apparently attributes human emotions, motives, and failings to God, are we to take these at face value, in isolation to the overarching narrative, or do they serve a different function which can only be appreciated at the denouement of the dramatic arc as we look back on the providential unfolding of events?

What we often see in narrative theology is not merely a pattern of promise and fulfillment, but a pattern of conflict and resolution. This follows an A-B-A structure.

A-1.Divine promise

B.Conflict.

A-2.Fulfillment. Resolution

In the B-phase the fulfillment is threatened by various obstacles and reversals.

But in A-2, the promise is realized in spite of, and even by means of, apparent setbacks.

The purpose is twofold:

a) To illustrate the sovereignty of God’s overruling providence.

b) To cultivate a habit if faith in the face of disappointment.

You can see this pattern play out in the lives of Abraham, Jacob, and Joseph.

One of the methological problems with open theism is that it takes its point departure from the B-phase, instead of beginning at the end by reasoning back from the da capo section of A-2.

And this, as I say, is parallel to Arminian theological method, which begins with the human response, with the phenomenology of faith and infidelity, and infers the nature of God’s will from the outcome, whereas Reformed theological method begins with those verses of Scripture which explicitly trace the human response back to the agency of God.

f) Oliphint would surely regard certain depictions of God in Scripture as anthropomorphic or anthropopathetic. But instead of doing this on an ad hoc basis, we need to work out a consistent, systematic, and principled hermeutical strategy.

Sola Scriptura By Implication

Read this thread on sola scriptura. Notice the misrepresentations of sola scriptura, and notice that the misrepresentations are repeated after being corrected. As Matt Schultz (Avatar) explains, sola scriptura doesn't need to be directly taught by scripture in order for the concept to be Biblical by implication.

The problem for Roman Catholics (and Eastern Orthodox and other critics of sola scriptura) is that their concept of tradition can't be defended historically. And Jesus and the apostles were historical figures. If we're to believe that they established an infallible church or passed on traditions outside of scripture, how do we objectively demonstrate that fact if not by means of historical argumentation?

What critics of sola scriptura will often do is set up an arbitrary, unreasonable standard that sola scriptura supposedly must meet, such as claiming that the concept must be directly taught by scripture. Then they'll suggest that a system like Roman Catholicism or Eastern Orthodoxy is the only alternative to sola scriptura. But there's no need for scripture to directly teach sola scriptura in order for the concept to be valid, and systems like Catholicism and Orthodoxy aren't the only alternatives to sola scriptura.

When the earliest post-apostolic sources refer to tradition, they're usually referring to concepts contained in scripture, such as monotheism, the Messiahship of Jesus, and the resurrection. Sometimes they'll refer to extra-Biblical concepts, such as oral traditions about premillennialism or matters of discipline, such as how to pray. But credible extra-Biblical traditions are few in number, they aren't of much significance, they don't have as much supporting evidence as scripture has, and their content is radically different from the content of Catholic and Orthodox tradition, sometimes even contradicting the traditions of those two groups.

Given that both Catholicism and Orthodoxy claim to be the one true church, and given how unhistorical they often claim Protestants are, why is it that they have so little evidence to work with? Why are they so often misrepresenting sola scriptura and making vague appeals to tradition when the tradition in question is radically different from what they believe in?

Saturday, April 29, 2006

The Plagues of Egypt

Debunking Christianity briefly departed from its soup-kitchen testimonials to do a substantive post on the ten plagues of Egypt.

http://debunkingchristianity.blogspot.com/2006/04/ten-plagues.html

“Archeology in the past 30 years has reduced the historical probability of the Exodus from slim to none.”

Dagood never substantiates his opening statement. What has happened in the past 30 years to deprobabilify the Exodus? What archeological discoveries justify this sweeping assertion?

“There is not a lick of proof of the destination of Exodus. Even though we should have extensive amounts of evidence of an invasion of Hebrews into Canaan, we have none.”

Why should we have extensive evidence for the Exodus or conquest of Canaan?

As Kenneth Kitchen explains in his book On The Reliability of the Old Testament (Eerdmans 2003),

“The setting presented in Exod 1-14 is indubitably that of Egypt’s East Delta, whence the Hebrews are shown going directly into the Sinai Peninsula first of all. Background data may well be drawn from Egypt overall, but for locating the biblical Hebrews and their movements ‘on the ground in Egypt we are restricted to the East Delta zone geographically.

This fact imposes further severe limitations upon all inquiry into the subject. The Delta is an alluvial fan of mud deposited through many millennia by the annual flooding of the Nile; it has no source of stone within it. Mud, mud and wattle, and mud-brick structures were of limited duration and use, and were repeatedly leveled and replaced, and very largely merged once more with the mud of the fields…The mud hovels of brickfield slaves and humble cultivators have long since gone back to their mud origins, never to be seen again. Even stone structures (such as temples) hardly survive, in striking contrast to sites in the cliff-enclosed valley of Upper Egypt to the south. All stone was anciently shipped in from the south and repeatedly recycled from one period to another.

Scarce wonder that practically no written records of any extent have been retrieved from Delta sites reduced to brick mounds (whose very bricks are despoiled for fertilizer), with even great temples reduced to heaps of tumbled stones. And in the mud, 99 percent of discarded papyri have perished forever; a tiny fraction (of late date) have been found carbonized (burned…A tiny fraction of reports from the East Delta occur in papyri recovered from the desert near Memphis. Otherwise, the entirety of Egypt’s administrative records at all periods in the Delta is lost; and monumental texts are also nearly nil. And, as pharaohs never monumentalize defeats on temple walls, no record of the successful exit of a large bunch of foreign slaves (with loss of a full chariot squadron) would ever have been memorialized by any king, in temples in the Delta or anywhere else,” ibid. 245-246.

“(1) Usually less than about 5 or 10 percent of any given mound is ever dug down to Late Bronze (or any other) levels; hence between 85 to 95 percent of our potential source of evidence is never seen.

(2)The principal Hebrew policy under Joshua was to kill leaders and inhabitants, not to destroy the cities, but eventually to occupy them (cf. Deut 6:10-11), destroying only the alien cult places (Deut 12:2-3).

(3)Conquests, even historically well-known examples, often do not leave behind the sorts of traces that modern scholars overconfidently expect,” ibid. 189-190.

“See B.S. J. Isserlin…quoting the Norman Conquest, the Anglo-Saxon settlement in England, and the Muslim Arab invasion of Syria-Palestine. One may also cite the innumerable campaigns of Egyptian, Hittite, Assyrian, and Neo-Babylonian armies in the Levant, of whose encampments and battlefields almost no traces are ever found,” ibid. 545, n84.

“No total conquest and occupation. The book of Joshua does not describe a total Hebrew conquest and occupation of Canaan, real or imaginary. Read straight, its narratives describe an entry (from over the Jordan), full destruction of two minor centers (Jericho, Ai; burned), then defeat of local kings and raids through south Canaan. Towns are attacked, taken, and damaged (“destroyed”), kings and subjects killed and then left behind, not held on to. The same in north Canaan; strategic Hazor is fully destroyed (burned), but no others. The rest are treated like the southern towns, and again left, not held,” ibid. 234-235.

Regarding the absence of corroboration:

“In the late 13C, Mesopotamia—in the guise of Assyria—never penetrated beyond the Euphrates into Syria proper; Hittite power at Carchemish stood against them. So no data can come on south Palestinian events (especially in the inner highlands) from that quarter. Egypt officially was overlord of Canaan, but her main interest was in the productive coastal plains, lowland hills, and Jezreel, not in the economically poorer highland, and in keeping hold on the main routes north into Phoenicia (to Tyre, Sidon, Babylos, &c) and to Damascus in Upe,” 235.

So we should not expect to have extensive evidence of the Conquest. And yet, despite the inherent paucity of potential evidence, the Biblical account for this event is not without a measure of corroborative evidence.

“So long as highlanders of any kind did not interfere there, and the Transjordanian groups did not interfere with the Timna (Sinai) mining works at the southern end of the Arabah, neither did Egypt bother with them. When they did, she struck back, and they got mentioned…So the biblical data and Egyptian references are agreed on the effective existence and activity of Seir/Edom, Moab (with Dibon!), and Israel at this time, plus Ammon (which was archaeologically extant). One cannot really ask for more in the circumstances,” ibid. 235.

Another scholar has citied eight “items in the book of Joshua [that] cannot otherwise be explained than, or can best be explained, by tracing their origin to the second-millennium BC,” R. Hess, Joshua (IVP 1996). Among these items he cites the following:

“The description of the borders of Canaan in the Pentateuch and in Joshua 1:4 matches the Egyptian understanding of Canaan in second-millennium BC sources, where the cities of Byblos, Tyre, Sidon, Acco and Hazor form part of the land,” ibid. 26.

“Josh 3:10 lists the groups of people whom God will drive out before Israel. Among these are three groups that have a distinctive association with the second millennium BC: the Hivites, the Perizzites and the Girgashites…The association of the Hivites and Perizzites with Hurrians is important for dating. Hurrian peoples and names flourished in the Late Bronze Age (1550-1200BC). Their presence diminished in the following two centuries and disappeared at the beginning of the first millennium BC. Girgashites may be attested in second-millennium BC Ugaritic and Egyptian sources,” ibid. 27-28.

“The names of the defeated kings in Josh 10-11 provide clues as to the origins of these narratives,” ibid. 29.

“Josh 24:7-27 contains a report of a covenant that, in its form and content, most closely resembles the Hittite vassal treaty structure unique to the second millennium BC,” ibid. 30-31.

Incidentally, the data cited by Kitchen and Hess are largely irrespective of whether you favor an early or late date for the Exodus.

Continuing with Dagood:

“Here is a question as to how far-reaching these plagues were. When it says ‘every’ is that just exaggeration for ‘quite a bit’”?

“Exaggeration” is a misleading adjective. It is a social convention of ordinary usage that quantifiers like “every” and “all” can be used as general expressions admitting various exceptions in particular.

That’s not an “exaggeration.” Rather, it’s a linguistic convention. How sweeping the actual scope of universal quantifier is meant to be can only be determined by their contextualization.

More than a linguistic convention, it is also a literary convention. It’s a standard compositional technique in OT historical narrative to lead with a broad programmatic statement that is later modified by a more detailed exposition. The pattern is from general to specific.

Continuing:

“Were they localized? The problem with this proposition is that God intended this to be a demonstration of His glory. A local sickness, killing a few cows, or a bad summer storm would not be remarkable.”

This is a false dichotomy. It isn’t necessary for the plagues to either exterminate all Egyptian life and livelihood or else be very narrowly targeted to achieve their appointed end.

The events must be on a scale sufficient to prove the point, without however killing every eyewitness to the events in question, since that would be self-defeating. There’s a mean between “killing a few cows” and total devastation.

“Water to Blood The Nile, every stream, every river, every pond, even water stored in vessels turns to blood. 7:19. (All verses from Exodus.)

First of all this would mean the loss of drinking water. The Bible notes this problem. 7:24. How does one transport the water from rivers and streams inland? The effort must be made to dig new wells, then transport it. This could not be done in any short time at all…ALL of the water in Egypt turned to blood. They had no reserves. There would be a loss of life due to dehydration.”

i) This is a considerable overstatement. As Dagood to admits that the groundwater was not contaminated (7:24).

This is not like drilling for oil. In a river valley, along a riverbank, you don’t have to dig very deep to reach groundwater. Animals do this all the time during the dry season.

ii) We are also told that the Egyptian magicians were able to replicate the first plague (7:22). This assumes that all the extant water was not bloody.

So Dagood has chosen two disregard two contextual delimiters in his effort to force the account into making nonsensical claims.

“But most important would be the loss of marine life. The fish (and other sea creatures) died. 7:21. Later, this will have in impact as to a food source. Environmental water systems, such as rivers, ponds and streams, have a necessary balance. By wiping out all of the fish, this balance would be irrevocably upset. It is not as if the blood turned back to water, and fish all of a sudden re-appeared. They were gone. It would take decades, if ever, for marine life to replenish and re-habit the rivers.”

It’s obvious that Dagood is no zoologist or geography teacher. We’re not talking about “marine” species, but fresh-water species. The Nile is a river, not an ocean.

Likewise, rivers and ponds are not interchangeable. Unlike a lake or a pond, which is fed by a river or stream or rainwater, but has no necessary outlet, there is continuous turnover of water and aquatic life in a river system.

That’s the difference between standing water and running water. Pretty elementary, my dear Watson.

Whatever fish were killed downstream would be replenished by fish upstream once the plague abated. The bloody water and dead aquatic life would wash out into the gulf, to be resupplied by water and aquatic issuing from the headwaters of the Nile.

Sure, there would be damage to the ecosystem, but damage and utter destruction are two different things.

“Birds that relied upon the fish for food would migrate or die. Crocodiles that relied upon the birds and fish for food would look to alternative sources. Every creature, dependant on marine life, would find alternatives, leave, or die.”

Birds and crocodiles could survive very nicely on dead fish and carrion for a week—the duration of the plague. Indeed, they’d gorge themselves on the sheer abundance of easy pickings.

Also, crocodiles don’t need to eat very often, while birds are highly mobile and migratory.

“Frogs, flies, boils and darkness While none of these plagues would be necessarily deadly; they would bring the economy of Egypt to a halt.”

i) A temporary disruption. Damaging to the economy? Yes. The end of the world? No.

ii) Mention of the frogs introduces another contextual delimiter into the extent or impact of the first plague. Since they survived the plague of blood, the narrator never intended to suggest that this particular event destroyed all aquatic life in Egypt.

Once again, Dagood and only make his case by doing violence to the text.

“Death of Livestock The beginning of the terrible plagues. Every Egyptian cow, horse, donkey, oxen, camel and sheep are killed. This would cause devastating problems in a variety of areas.”

This disregards the explicit contextual delimiter in 9:3 (livestock grazing in the open fields), as well as the implicit delimiters in 9:9 (the sixth plague) and 9:19-21 (the seventh plague).

Since livestock are also the target of the sixth plague (of boils) and seventh plague (of hail), the fifth plague was never understood to destroy all available livestock—not even all the Egyptian livestock, much less the Jewish, which was exempt. And that’s in addition to 9:3.

The account of the ten plagues forms a literary unit. They were never meant to be read in isolation. Since the reader has access to the entire account, information supplied by a later stage can shed contextual light on an early stage. He can read ahead.

Indeed, that’s the point. The ten plagues have a cumulative impact as the effect is phased in over time—with mounting severity.

“At this point, we would see a huge influx of Egyptian goods being traded to outside countries for their animals.”

Really? What about trading with their Jewish slaves, whose herds were intact? (Exod 9:4-7,26).

Remember, the Jewish population was enormous. So their livestock would have been commensurate (12:37-38).

Since, moreover, they were slaves, the Egyptians were in a position to plunder the Jewish herds for food or breeding-purposes.

Remember, though, that according to 9:3, all Egyptian livestock were not, in fact, destroyed.

“Hail Wipes out many of the animals that were just obtained from other countries, some servants, and much of the crops. 9:25.”

It only wipes out the livestock left in the open field, but not the livestock in barns and stables, for those Egyptians who prudently heeded the warning (9:19-21).

More damage done, but not the apocalypse.

“And for the animals that are left, what do you feed them? People have no meat, and now have no grain to eat.”

This overlooks two things:

i) The agricultural impact of the seventh plague was selective (9:31-32).

ii) Egypt had granaries set aside just in case of famine and drought (Gen 41; 47).

“Locusts A killer. Every single plant is gone; nothing green is left. 10:15. (Note: this would have done within the same harvest as the hail. 10:12)

The few animals left would have nothing to eat. They would die. What would the people eat? There is no marine life. No wild animals now. No cattle, sheep, or even pigeons. But more importantly, no grain. No fruits. No vegetables.

The only food source possible would be from outside sources or roots dug up.”

Same answers as above. Dagood Ignores the royal granaries, as well as building on a series of faulty interpretations.

“Tenth Plague The firstborn of every family dies. Including the firstborn of the livestock. (Where do these animals keep coming from?”

As we said before, the livestock come from Jewish herds, which were spared, as well as Egyptian herds secured in barns and stables.

The Exodus account and historical antecedents in the Joseph cycle have the internal resources to address all these objections. Dagood willfully disregards relevant narrative information, unless he’s just too dim to see the obvious starring him in the face.

“Army wiped out Although technically not a plague, it is an important event that happened immediately on the heels of these national tragedies, that would further demonstrate how Egypt would no longer be in existence if the Plagues happened as recorded.

Pharaoh pursues the Hebrews with all of his army, all the chariots and horsemen (where DO those horses keep coming from?), and his captains. 14:9. And they are wiped out. 14:28.”

i) The horses come from the royal stables. Hence, they escaped the hail. One doesn’t have to be a rocket science to figure this out.

ii) Dagwood also misconstrues the text. As John Currid explains:

“Note, however that it is only the mobile forces, the chariots and cavalry [14:23], who take up the chase,” Exodus (Evangelical Press 2000), 1:303.

“Attached to the phrase ‘the entire army of Pharaoh’ [14:28] is a lamed preposition…the particle may be used to indicate possession, so that the phrase means ‘the chariots and horsemen which belonged to the entire army of Pharaoh.’ It is not the whole army of Pharaoh that was destroyed in the Red Sea, but only the chariots and cavalry of Egypt,” ibid. 1:306.

Continuing:

“Can anyone take this literally?”

Yes, I can.

“OR, is it more likely this is a story. A legend. In stories and legends, we don’t have to worry about the effects.”

As Kitchen points out, “We are dealing with realia here; river, fish, frogs, insects, cattle, humans, and not a fantasy world off (e.g.) dragons, monsters, genies, Liliths, or other plainly mythical beings, and in a real country (Egypt), not an imaginary place unknown to geography,” Ibid. 249.

Kitchen also summarizes the classic monograph of Hort, according to whom the sequence of the ten plagues follows a perfectly natural causal sequence:

1.July/August. “Extreme high flood because of extra heavy rains in Nile source regions; brings masses of Roterde [the Red Nile] plus flagellates;> red color, oxygen fluctuation, so fish die and rot, breeding round for infections.”

2.August/September. ”Insects bring Bacillus anthracis to rotting fish, infects frogs, who mass-migrate onto land and die, carrying infection into land and herbage.”

3.October/November. “Mosquitoes overbreeding, in pools of excessive Nile flood.”

4.October/November to December/January. “Flies bit legs/fee, fly=Somoxys calicitrans, infection from #2.”

Goshen spared.

5.January. “Animals let out into fields contract anthrax from pasture, hence ingest (like the frogs) and die.”

Goshen spared.

6.January. “Humans and livestock (indoors). Bitten by the Somoxys calcitrans flies, causing a (nonfatal) skin anthrax. Cf. #4.”

Goshen spared.

7.February. “Hail on flax and barley (too soon for wheat and spelt). The two latter crops not due then.”

Goshen spared.

8.February/March. “Locusts breed in east Sudan; move north up Red Sea/Northwest Arabia; these ones, blown from east to west into Egypt; Northwest wind (i) blows them into north of Upper Egypt and (ii) away to yam suf.”

9.March/April. “The initial khamsin of the season, whipping up not only sand, but masses of fine, dense, dark roterde, giving greater ‘darkness than just a sand wind,” ibid. 251 (Table 18).

My point is not that a naturalistic explanation is necessarily preferable to a supernaturalistic explanation. But when naturalistic objections are raised to the Exodus account, and there are replies which answer the critic on his own grounds, then this needs to be addressed rather than ignored.

Whether Dagood’s abject failure is due to sheer ignorance and ineptitude, or else a calculated suppression of the internal and external evidence to the contrary, I cannot say. In any event, his case against the Exodus has all the mileage of a flat tire.

The Significance Of Protestant Associations

In a recent thread on the New Testament Research Ministries boards, a poster commented that groups like Oneness Pentecostalism and the Word of Faith movement are part of Protestantism, even if we don't want them to be. The same poster has said, in another thread, that he's moving toward Eastern Orthodoxy, so his concern over what's happening to "our" Protestantism is dubious. As somebody moving toward Orthodoxy, he has an interest in putting Protestantism in a negative light.

Since this criticism of Protestants is common, I've decided to post part of my reply here. If we agree with the teachings of a Presbyterian or Methodist church, for example, should we refrain from joining it because of its association with Protestantism? If groups like the Word of Faith movement are associated with Protestantism (or groups like liberal Methodists, liberal Baptists, etc.), how much significance does their association with Protestantism have for other people who consider themselves Protestants? Here's what I wrote:


Since Eastern Orthodoxy claims to be the one true church, should we associate every group that claims to be Christian with Orthodoxy? Should we say that though Eastern Orthodox "may not want to claim them as their own", these groups are "theirs"? Should we put Eastern Orthodoxy together with every heretical group that ever existed in the Eastern regions of the world, then call all of them together "Eastern Christianity"?

In addition to the category of "Protestantism", we can speak of other large categories, like "Eastern Christianity", "Western Christianity", "modern Christianity", etc. We can categorize groups by the region in which they originated, some of the doctrines they hold, etc. All of us, no matter what church or denomination we attend, can be placed in a number of smaller and larger categories, and that categorizing will sometimes associate us with other people we disagree with on some issues. If followers of the Word of Faith movement are to be considered Protestants, the fact would remain that I can join a local Methodist, Presbyterian, or Lutheran church without having any close associations with the Word of Faith movement. If I think that the evidence leads to the conclusion that a Methodist church is correct in what it teaches, should I refrain from joining that Methodist church just because that church shares the broad category of "Protestant" with other groups I don't agree with? It would be difficult to live your life without having any broad associations with any group you disagree with. Protestantism is a broad movement defined in different ways by different people.

Our primary concern in deciding what church to join shouldn't be its broader associations, but rather its own teachings and behavior. The more distant an association is, the less significance it carries. Being part of the Protestant movement is too distant an association for the inclusion of something like the Word of Faith movement to make it unacceptable to be a Protestant. There's nothing inherent in being a Protestant that involves the acceptance of something like Word of Faith theology.



We should ask why it is that so many of the people who raise this objection against Protestants don't seem to apply the same reasoning to their own church (or the church they're considering joining). If you're going to refrain from becoming a Baptist because of the distant associations a Baptist church has with other groups, then why not apply the same reasoning to Eastern Orthodoxy, Roman Catholicism, etc.?

Friday, April 28, 2006

Big Yawn

Yet another apocryphal gospel.

Eating & drinking

I see that a discussion, apparently prompted by a post of mine:

http://triablogue.blogspot.com/2006/04/back-to-bread-of-life.html,

continues apace over at: www.carm.org

http://www.christiandiscussionforums.org/v/showthread.php?t=8889

I’ll respond to a few comments:

One disputant says:

“I agree that [Jn 6) forshadows the cross. However, to the Catholic (and anyone who believes in the Real Presence really) the Crucifixion and the Eucharist are intimately tied together.”

But even if we agree with the intimate connection between the Crucifixion and the Eucharist, that does not amount to an exegetical argument for the sacramental reading of Jn 6.

Another disputant says:

“The real fact remains that historically, the interpretation I posted was held for centuries right from the Apostles (1 Corinthians 10:16).”

Several problems with this appeal.

i) It assumes the Catholic interpretation of 1 Cor 10:16, which begs the question.

ii) By using 1 Cor 10:16 to interpret Jn 6, this appeal takes for granted the sacramental reading of Jn 6, which also begs the question.

That 1 Cor 10:16 is talking about communion is explicit. Whether Jn 6 is talking about communion is the very point at issue.

iii) It is also dubious to use one writer to interpret another writer. Paul is not commenting on John. Indeed, it’s unlikely that Paul ever read the Fourth Gospel.

So why assume that Paul and John are talking about the same thing?

This is another example of a how a Catholic begins with his dogmas, and then casts about for some Scriptural prooftext.

The same disputant argues for a sacramental reading of Jn 6 because the verb “to eat” means “to eat,” and he quotes a number of Johannine passages in which it denotes literal consumption.

But this appeal commits the classic semantic error of failing to distinguish between sense and reference.

Yes, “to eat” means “to eat.” That’s a tautology. No one denies that.

From this is doesn’t follow that “to eat” means to literally eat.

That confuses the general meaning of a word with what it refers to.

But the particular referent isn’t supplied by the bare meaning of the word.

That’s why we can use the same word is a multitude of different settings.

Whether the verb has reference to literal or figurative consumption is context-dependent. The context supplies the concrete referent.

Once again, if the disputant spent a little time with a concordance he would quickly see that words and images of eating and drinking are often deployed as spiritual metaphors (cf. Ps 42:1; Prov 15:14; Jer 3:15; Amos 8:11; Jn 4:9-14; 7:37-39; 18:11; 1 Cor 3:1-2; Heb 5:11-14; 1 Pet 2:2; Rev 14:8-10; 16:6; 21:6).

I don’t cite this usage to interpret Jn 6, but merely to establish the possibility of this construction, and illustrate a semantic fallacy.

"The living bread"

After Schrödinger’s cat finally died of acute cognitive dissonance in 1954, Tellus II fissioned off from planet earth.

As a part of a parallel universe, Tellus II had a history in many ways parallel to Tellus I, but being part of an alternative universe, it also had a history in some ways alternative to Tellus I.

(Incidentally, there was an intense debate among the theoretical physicists of Tellus II regarding the actual or hypothetical existence of Tellus II. But that’s another story.)

Because Tellus II instantiated a different timeline, it quickly branched off in different directions.

When John XXIII became Antipope, he ushered in a new era of aggiornamento.

(Incidentally, when I say that John XIII was an “Antipope,” that doesn’t mean he was an imposter. It only means that just as papal incumbents of Tellus I were made of matter, papal incumbents of Tellus II were made of antimatter.)

The principal concern of John XXIII’s antipontificate was to revise the traditional understanding of the sacraments.

In traditional Tellurian dogma, the communion elements become the true body and blood of the Messiah.

John XXIII, however, belonged to the secret society of the Literati.

As their name suggests, the Literati took the Bread of Life discourse literally. So when the Messiah described himself as living bread, come down from heaven, this meant exactly what it said: the Messiah was a loaf of bread.

As such, the Literati rejected the dogma of the Real Presence in favor of the Real Breadence.

On this point they would brook no compromise. To tamper with the plain meaning of the text by suggesting that true body existed under the species of bread, or in, with, and under the bread, was a blatant case of Scripture twisting.

When the text said “bread,” it meant “bread.” It meant what it said, and said what it meant. To depart from the natural sense of the text was rationalistic and impious.

So after John XXIII became Antipope, he set about to officially reformulate the dogma by convoking the Second Vatican Council.

But his efforts met with stiff opposition. Archbishop Lebreadre accused him of being a “Pope,” which in Tellurian II discourse was synonymous with “Antipope” in Tellurian I discourse.

(Yes, I know this gets to be a bit confusing.)

John XXIII endeavored to defend himself against this charge by appealing to Cardinal Newman’s theory concerning the breadolution of dogma.

John XXIII was not contradicting traditional dogma, but merely elucidating and elaborating the latent implications of the deposit of faith.

However, his attempted reformulation proved to be too radical, and he was deposed.

This, in turn, generated a schism. Indeed, a series of schisms.

For the doctrine of the Real Breadance raises a number of hitherto unanswered questions. For example, if the Messiah was a loaf of bread, then what kind of bread was he?

This is not, I assure you, a merely academic dispute or scholastic quibble, for unless the true ingredients could be identified and reproduced, the sacrament was invalid.

So the Literati soon subdivided into a multiplicity of rival factions, such as the Apple Walnutters, Pumpernickel Ryeans, Chocolate Babkans, and Cinnamon Raisins.

The controversy soon spread beyond the confines of Mother Church to engulf the separated brethren. Appalachian believers said the Messiah was made of corn bread (“holy hoecakes”), and Southern Presbyterian said he was made of hushpuppies, while Scots-Presbyterians, being of a dour disposition, said he was made of sourdough.

For their part, charismatics were less interested in the flour than in the leaven. They favored a yeasty spirituality.

There was also a split between Copernican Literati and Ptolemaic Literati. You see, as Cardinal Dulles pointed out in his crustological proof, heaven bread implied a heavenly Baker as well as a heavenly Bakery.

So there were fiery disputes over the astronomical positioning of the heavenly Bakery.

In addition, the Literati worshipped a trinity of the Baker, the Bread, and the Leaven.

There were also ceremonies concerning the reservation and adoration of the Pumpernickel.

Since Scripture expressly denominated the bread as “living” bread, Pumpernickel Ryeans (and other Literati) took to leaving food out for “The Pumpernickel” to consume in private.

The fact that their provision of food was never actually eaten was taken by some sceptics as evidence that the Pumpernickel was not a living entity, but as the Literati pointed out, this was a test of faith, for faith, as everyone knows, is believing the unbelievable.

Things got so chaotic that Benedict XVI reinstituted the Inquisition to impose a measure of unity and outward conformity in order to stave off the tragic scandal of so many competing recipes. Heresy trials abounded.

Sectarian Literati justified their respective traditions by appeal to apostolic succession. According, for example, to ancient Appalachian tradition, St. Bartholomew, after crossing the Atlantic on the back of a porpoise, founded an apostolic see in the Smokey Blue Hills.

Other schismatics cited equally venerable legends.

Heretics and schismatics who refused to recant were sentenced to a diet of unleavened bread and dish water.

I wish I could tell you how it all came out, but the wormhole I was using to receive signals from the religion correspondent on Tellus II collapsed before his transmission was finished, and I’ve been unable to reestablish an uplink.

Thursday, April 27, 2006

PTL - R.C. Sproul Comes to Direct TV®

Move over Jan Crouch and Benny Hinn...R.C. Sproul has arrived! Now, we really can "Praise the Lord!" At last, an alternative to TBN, where the motto is "All Heresy All the Time!" I did some checking, and they are also airing Kay Arthur's program. John Ankerberg also broadcasts on NRB. The president is an elder in the PCA. One of my friends, Stu Epperson Jr. is on their board.

HT: John Hendryx
Renewing Your Mind with Dr. R.C. Sproul launches on DirecTV ®

Orlando, Fla., April 22, 2006 — Renewing Your Mind (RYM) is embarking on a new era of outreach by broadcasting on the NRB Network, channel 378 on DirecTV ®, with a potential audience of more than sixteen million subscribers. This new broadcast will contribute quality programs that provide a platform to expand the kingdom of God by increasing the reach of biblical truth. RYM will feature teaching by Dr. R.C. Sproul, airing for thirty minutes at both 7:30 EST in the morning and evening.

Since Americans are watching television now more than ever, the need for solid Christian programming with content that rivals secular channels has increased. John Duncan, executive producer for RYM, said, “The opportunity on the NRB Network brings the ministry to its knees in prayer, because we are at the threshold of something that has the potential to be as effective as the radio outreach. As we did not realize the profound impact that the radio ministry would have in the world, so the new television ministry opportunity has also opened up endless possibilities.” For the first time, Dr. Sproul will be invited into viewers homes, while they come face-to-face with his deep theological knowledge and characteristic, practical teaching style.

The NRB Network “exists to represent the Christian broadcasters’ right to communicate the Gospel of Jesus Christ to a lost and dying world.” Senior vice president and chief operating officer of the NRB network, Troy Miller, said, “As of yet, there is not a Christian network seeking to compete with the secular broadcasters such as the Hallmark Channel, the Discovery Channel, Bravo, Fox News, PBS, PBS Kids, and so on. The NRB Network enters the market to answer the challenge — bringing a solid biblical world and life view, coupled with a modern and more mainstream programming approach.”

Dr. R. C. Sproul is featured on RYM, an international radio broadcast that has aired for more than ten years with an estimated two million people tuning in every week. Dr. Sproul is a respected teacher, theologian, and pastor. He is currently serving as the director of Serve International, and senior minister of preaching at Saint Andrew’s Chapel in Sanford, Florida. He has had a distinguished academic teaching career, written scores of articles for national publications, is general editor of The Reformation Study Bible, executive editor of Tabletalk magazine, and he has written more than 60 books, produced more than 300 lecture series, and recorded more than 80 video series — which will be prepared to air on the RYM television program. For more information please visit http://www.ligonier.org/.

Debunking godless suckers

Well, the mutual recriminations continue to fly fast and furious over at gods4suckers. John Loftus is trying his level best to be the voice of reason, which is not small task given the flat-liners he must deal with over at his sister site.

Sean and Stardust are utterly befuddled by how Loftus had could so “forgiving” and “turn the other cheek."

Well, the explanation is pretty simple:

For one thing, Loftus is not the guy who got punk’d. He knew that my satirical series was just a spoof, so he’s not the one making a public fool of himself.

As such, he doesn’t feel the need to assume a defensive tone. On this occasion his reputation survived intact. Since he never dug himself into a hole, he has no need to dig himself out of a hole.

But Loftus is also enough of a tactician to realize that when those who were bamboozled by a palpable parody continue to dig themselves ever deeper into the wet, slippery mud, with the sides caving in at every turn, they do more damage to the cause of infidelity than any outsider could.

So Loftus continues to throw them a rope and coax them out of the pit of quick sand before they go totally under, but they continue to slap the lifeline away.

At this rate they’ll go the way of the mastodons.