Before I address some canonical issues Dave Armstrong raised in his recent responses to me, I want to ask him for clarification on something he said. I'm also interested in any information other readers might be able to provide.
As I explained in an article on the canon last year, it's common for people to make false claims about what the Council of Nicaea supposedly did with regard to the canon. And Dave writes:
"The Council of Nicaea questioned the inclusion in the NT of James, 2 Peter, 2 and 3 John, and Jude."
What is he referring to?