Sunday, March 09, 2008

Everyone Who Hears and Learns From the Father Comes to Me

Manata has done an excellent job with John 6:44 below, by analyzing the text logically. For me, I'll just second his work and offer my own reading of the text without all the logical formulae, just to make it easier to handle for some of our readers whose eyes may gloss over when reading the formulae. The text is rather simple, which is one reason you'd think Thibodeux, simpleton he has demonstrated himself to be of late, would be able to read it with clarity.

No one can come unless the Father draws him does not imply that everyone drawn will come, simply that they can come. Speaking in relation to those who come is what the raising refers to, not all who are drawn."

JCT continues to demonstrate his inability to do simple exegesis by inserting a disjunction between those who are drawn and those who are raised. Where's the supporting argument for this move?

So, the one who is raised and the ones who are drawn are two different groups of people. Wrong! They are the SAME group of people.

1. Everyone who comes is drawn.
2. Nobody who comes is turned away.

Ah, but, would say JCT, this does not prove that everyone who is drawn comes!

Ah, but it does, for 45 is epexegetical to 44. The big word (epexegetical) means that this explains the preceding statement. It's a form of Hebrew parallelism. We find it throughout the Psalms. We also find it in Isaiah. That should be a clue, since the text actually quotes Isaiah! Perhaps one of these days Mr's. Thibodeux and Witizi will let their eyes drop down and read v. 45.

It is written in the Prophets, "And they shall be taught of God." Everyone who hears and learns from the Father comes to me.

This proves that everyone drawn comes. How? Everyone who hears and learns from the Father and "be taught of God" explains what drawing is. So, let's place them in parallel:

Nobody (universal negative) can come to me unless the Father who sent me draws him
Everyone (universal positive) who hears and learns from the Father (is drawn) comes to me

And I will raise him up (the person who is drawn/hears and learns/is taught by the the Father) on the last day
Notice that I, as a Calvinist, don't have to posit any disjunctions in the text, and I'm reading the text as it is actually written. My interpretation of 44 comes directly from 45, which is precisely how you read parallelisms in the Psalms and Prophets. I can read through the text in one run without running to John 12 or talking about "free will." I don't have to bring anything to this text that is not in this text and this text alone. Arminians can't do this, as we've seen repeatedly.

JCT argues that God draws everybody equally (UPG). Well, if that's true, we wind up with universalism since EVERYONE who hears and learns from the Father comes to Jesus. JCT has two choices: Calvinism or Universalism. On Arminian grounds alone, Arminianism is excluded, since JCT is no universalist.

Indeed, this is confirmed by the text preceding 44.

All that the Father gives Me will come to Me, and the one who comes to Me I will certainly not cast out.

38"For I have come down from heaven, not to do My own will, but the will of Him who sent Me.

39"This is the will of Him who sent Me, that of all that He has given Me I lose nothing, but raise it up on the last day.

40"For this is the will of My Father, that everyone who beholds the Son and believes in Him will have eternal life, and I Myself will raise him up on the last day."

Notice 40, EVERYONE who beholds the Son and believes in HIm will have eternal life and I Myself will raise Him upn the last day.

JCT must say that not everyone believes who beholds the Son in order to avoid universalism.

But the text continues,

41Therefore the Jews were grumbling about Him, because He said, "I am the bread that came down out of heaven."

42They were saying, "Is not this Jesus, the son of Joseph, whose father and mother we know? How does He now say, 'I have come down out of heaven'?"

43Jesus answered and said to them, "Do not grumble among yourselves.

THEN we have 44/45. 44/45 as an explanation of the unbelief of the people in 41 - 43. These are people who certainly "beheld" Jesus yet did not believe.

Why? Because they were not taught by the Father. They were NOT drawn. It was NOT given to them to believe (65). Ergo, those who are drawn and those who are raised in 44 are the same group of people, or else this text makes no sense in its context, an explanation of the unbelief of those in the synagogue to whom Jesus was speaking.

We're left to ask JCT and Mr. Witzki this question: Why does one person come and not another if everyone is, in fact, drawn? This is HIGHLY germane to this text, as this text supplies the answer.

Only the Calvinist can read this passage consistently without stopping to talk about matters extraneous to the text or running elsewhere. Indeed, I've seen Arminians over the years resort to all manner of maneuvers to alleviate their problem here, even one on the Baptistboard who went so far as to claim the verb "(h)elkuo" wasn't in any of the critical texts!

The objections to the Calvinist exegesis of this text are not coming from the exegesis of the text, but from the imposition of LFW upon the text, but LFW is not taught by a single line of Scripture. We've seen JCT try to show that to be the case and fail, and we've seen Ben say that LFW is a "presupposition" that is simply in Scripture. As LFW goes, so goes Arminian exegesis of John 6:44.

Continuing with Hosea 11, which JCT had cited earlier to equate "drawing" in some contexts with wooing...

First, even if "wooing" and "drawing" were the same in some contexts, it does not follow that John 6 is one of those contexts. That said...
Steve wrote:

In 11:4, Hosea has employed the metaphor of an animal trainer who uses ropes (or a yoke) to control his livestock or wild animals.

It’s obvious that J.C. never bothered to exegete his prooftext. He could have learned about the imagery by consulting the standard commentators on Hosea (e.g. David Hubbard, Thomas McComiskey, Gary Smith, Douglas Stuart)


Which is why I asked him how Hosea 11 relates to John 6, which was the text I had in mind, and his reply, if you'll recall was originally to me.

Here's Hosea 11:1-4

1When Israel was a youth I loved him,
And out of Egypt I called My son.

2The more they called them,
The more they went from them;
They kept sacrificing to the Baals
And burning incense to idols.

3Yet it is I who taught Ephraim to walk,
I took them in My arms;
But they did not know that I healed them.

4I led them with cords of a man, with bonds of love,
And I became to them as one who lifts the yoke from their jaws;
And I bent down and fed them.
This text is not about God "wooing" Israel, it's about God's deliverance of Israel, the Exodus. It's about His faithfulness to them. This text, if we want to talk about it's relation to the meaning of "drawing" is on our side, not his. God did not "woo" Israel out of Egypt or "woo" Israel into the land of Canaan. Indeed, He did not "woo" them into the Exile and the Return. He drove them there and pulled them out.

And, if JC wants to say, "Well, Israel fell into sin," yes it did, but if he'd care to check out the whole trajectory of Hosea, after the Exile, Israel was delivered through the remnant. God preserved the nation, and God did so as a type of the Church, the elect.

Dumpster Diving

J.C. Thibodaux has come out of hiding and exposed his true identity.

I love trash.

Oscar has a green body, has no nose, and lives in a garbage can. His favorite thing in life is trash. His favorite song is "I love Trash."


Oh, I love trash!
Anything dirty or dingy or dusty
Anything ragged or rotten or rusty
Yes, I love trash

I have here a sneaker that's tattered and worn
It's all full of holes and the laces are torn
A gift from my mother the day I was born
I love it because it's trash

Oh, I love trash!
Anything dirty or dingy or dusty
Anything ragged or rotten or rusty
Yes, I love trash

I have here some newspaper thirteen months old
I wrapped fish inside it; it's smelly and cold
But I wouldn't trade it for a big pot o' gold!
I love it because it's trash

Oh, I love trash!
Anything dirty or dingy or dusty
Anything ragged or rotten or rusty
Yes, I love trash

I've a clock that won't work
And an old telephone
A broken umbrella, a rusty trombone
And I am delighted to call them my own!
I love them because they're trash

Oh, I love trash!
Anything dirty or dingy or dusty
Anything ragged or rotten or rusty
Yes, I love, I love, I love trash!


He recently responded to both Steve and I (see link above). My P.I. happened to be in the right place at the right time and snapped this picture of Ben and J.C. rummaging through the trash:


Ben and J.C.

People warned J.C. and Ben about the T-blog team. They didn't listen. Now they've been reduced to throwing a public temper tantrum after someone actually responded to their critiques of Calvinism. They just want to post critiques and have no responses given in return. They first attempted to take the moral high ground by claiming how mean and nasty we were. But they have only exposed themselves as hypocrites. They have been rattled and so now must resort to "trash talk" of their own. But they justify this by the undefeatable playground get out of jail free card: "But they started it!" Not only have the been shown to offer inept arguments, they have been shown to be hypocrites. They should have listened to those who tried to warn them:

Don't go a messin' with T-bloggers

Though the world sits by and laughs, the divers remain undaunted. Locked up within the confines of their own mind, blind to the reality of the situation, with a deaf ear to the pleas to stop and save face, they take pride in their dumpster diving. They started a team. Even have their own t-shirt:


$9.99; sizes: S, M, L, XL, XXL; colors: White, Grey, Black, and Pink

Leaving aside the above and how even their own cut downs get turned against them, let me briefly respond to Oscar's latest response to my argument.

I have been arguing that on the Arminian scheme either God wastes his time by "answering" a prayer he knows he cannot answer, or the Arminian does by praying to a God who refuses to do anything that he knows is futile. I'm specifically talking about when an Arminian prays for one of "the lost." One of "the lost" who will never get saved, that is. Oscar Thibodaux has been desperately trying to answer this argument. The funny thing is, when he shows "a point" then he will have also vindicated the Calvinist position which both he and Ben tried to critique! That's the beauty of my argument, if I'm wrong I win, if I right I win. Oscar Thibodaux has missed this subtlety.

The Argument in a Nutshell

God knows who will be saved and who will be unsaved. Call the first group S and the last U.

If an Arminian prays for God to save a member of U, then when he does whatever it is that he does to answer the prayer, he is involved in a futile activity. Goes through the motions. Wastes his time. Does something he knows will not come to fruition. If God could save U, then the number of elect, the fixed number that he knew, would grow, and God wouldn't be omniscient. He would have been wrong about the set of S as consisting of n number of people. Rather it, contrary to his claim to knowledge, now consists n + 1. Or, if it doesn't add to God's knowledge then we don't have a real member of U.

If the Arminian says that God doesn't actively engage in going through the motions to 'save' those he knows will not be saved, then the Arminian's prayers are a waste of time, and pointless (again, these terms are used in their vague, ambiguous, sloppy, and undefined way that they were used on me. No complaining now.)

The argument is in the form of a dilemma:

Let S = God does something to save who he knows will not be saved.

Let W = God wastes his time.

Let A = Arminian wastes his time.

1. S-->W

2. ~S-->A

3. S v ~S

4. :. W v A

Oscar Thibodaux has been trying and trying to come up with different ways around this rebuttal.

All his attempted rebuttals were shot down, and he was forced to go back to the drawing board. So, his latest was to say to God trying to 'save' someone he knew he could not save, would not be saved, was not futile just like it was "no more 'futile' than sending prophets to people that God knew would not receive them."

I responded that for those people, sending the prophets wasn't futile since if they didn't listen, they prophets words served as a basis for judgment.

Oscar Thibodaux's response was:

"Really now?

Nevertheless they were disobedient And rebelled against You, Cast Your law behind their backs And killed Your prophets, who testified against them To turn them to Yourself; And they worked great provocations. (Nehemiah 9:26)"

I fully answer his sloppy proot-texting in this post.

Now, the point to keep in mind is that I attempted to show that God has a point, purpose, or reason for everything he does. Therefore, nothing he does is futile. If I show that he "had a point" to sending prophets to those who would not listen, then I have shown that God did not "waste his time" or engage in something "pointless."

Now, is Oscar Thibodaux actually arguing that God was trying to bring back someone he knew wouldn't come back? I know that I can't bring back the dead, so I don't try it. I know I can't fly, so I don't try it. Trying to do something you know (and in God's case, he knows with certainty) will not happen, is a mark of irrationality. If Oscar Thibodaux is arguing this, then let's see an actual argument. But, it turns out, that he isn't. He is actually so out of it that he doesn't even know what he's trying to argue against.

First, he says, "Paul still can't get over the fact that the prophets were sent to turn the people back to God." I don't have a problem with this. Oscar is resorting to lies in order to bolster his case.

"Obviously, He sends His word to save men, but if they won't listen, it will serve to condemn them, or as Christ said,"

Right, so as I said, the prophets words to those God knows will not turn back serve as evidence to judge them. This is my argument.

I think Manata's found his own 'futility' solution.

Oscar Thibodaux can't even keep track of the discussion, and he actually ends up granting me a point. I didn't "find" my own solution, this was my "solution" from the very start. From word one. Oscar Thibodaux then tried to refute this. Now, he agrees with my original point!

Second, I had argued that God could use the prayers of his people to serve as means to condemn the non-elect. That is, if Oscar Thibodaux gets to use this point to show that there is "a point," and that the prayer is not "futile," then so do I. Oscar Thibodaux has just granted that I answered Ben Kangaroodort's argument!

Third, the point here is that God is not trying to bring back these people. He doesn't engage in means-end irrationality. Likewise, God doesn't try to save the people he knows will not be saved. So are J.C. and Ben "wasting their time" when they pray for those people? They still have the problem.

Now, one thing Oscar Thibodaux could say it, "Well, for one thing, we are not 'wasting our time' because we are in communion with God. And communion with God is no 'waste of time,' no matter which way you slice it." Okay, but that is what the Calvinist does to. So again J.C. Thibodaux is bound to say, by canons of logical consistency, that I have answered Ben Kangaroo's "inconsistency argument." I have employed J.C. to beat Ben! Welcome to my parlor said the spider to the fly



Thibodaux continues to dig his own grave:

"I didn't say it was, but neither does heaping condemnation on them for not listening negate the fact that they were sent to turn Israel back to God -- it can serve as either depending on the response; saving primarily, and condemning if not heeded."

Right, so you agree with me. Remember, we have been talking about those God knew would not turn or get saved! I never once said that serving as means for condemnation was the only reason God send prophets, preachers, evangelists, and even apologists. I was specifically talking about the people God knew would not turn back, or get saved. Thibodaux is simply trying to save his sinking ship. Running around like a chicken with his head cut off. Desperately trying to save face.

Moving on to John 6:44

I wrote: "But John 6:44 does not state that all who are drawn are saved, simply that no one can come to Christ unless drawn by God the Father."

The statement is in the form of a conjunction. Logically, it can be translated thus:

(~p --> ~q) & r

You cannot accept the first part of the conjunction and not the second (r = raise him up on the last day). Or, did you skip that part in your logic readings?

J.C. responded: "No one can come unless the Father draws him does not imply that everyone drawn will come, simply that they can come. Speaking in relation to those who come is what the raising refers to, not all who are drawn."

i) Wow, no one has the power to instantiate alternative possibilities? So, all men are unable to come unless the Father draw him, got it. So in respects to salvation, libertarian free will ceases to be a functional category. You can say all men are drawn, and some make libertarian choices to come, but then you have universalism (see below). And, you must explain why one comes and not another. To simply say, "Because one chooses to" is a non-answer.

ii) The text says: No one is able to come unless the father draws him and I will raise him up on the last day. Are those hims the same him or not? If they are the same, all drawn are raised. It's really rather simple.

iii) Jesus disagrees with your claim: John6:37 All that the Father gives me will come to me, and whoever comes to me I will never drive away.

iv) And, I never said that John 6:44 alone teaches that the Father's drawing is sufficient for someone to come, only that it is necessary. You're not even engaging my point. Again, the point is in the conjunction. John 6:44 is saying (~p --> ~q) & r. This is logically equivalent to (q-->p) & r. Thus,

[1] If he is able to come, then the father drew him, and Jesus will raise him up on the last day.

[2] He is able to come (notice, I never said he did. We just sticking with what the verse says).

[3] Therefore the father drew him and Jesus will raise him up on the last day.

Premise [2] for you is 'all men.' The logic of the case forces you to accept the conclusion of universalism. That is, all men whoever will be saved.

Now, I'm giving an argument. It is valid, and if the premises are true, the conclusion follows with necessity and must be true. Oscar Thibodaux hasn't challenged even one of those premises. Until he does, my conclusion stands, and he must accept universalism.

At any rate, let's see how he tries to respond to the above argument:

In answer to (ii) above he writes,

It potentially can be the same him, hence it's stated that he can come.

Care to demonstrate that exegetically? You're cheating. You're taking the last him as one who does come. But, if we stick with the text, we would note the text says nothing about those who actually comes, only those who are drawn or able to come. Since you take it that all men are both drawn and able to come, then you must, by the force of the logic, take it that all men will be raised (this was proven by the modus ponens argument above). The referent of the last "him" can only be the referent spoken of in the verse. Your "out" is an exegetical nightmare.

In answer to (iii) above, Oscar Thibodaux says,

"Equating drawing with being given. No dice."

Funny stuff coming from a guy who tried to equate "drawing" with being "wooed!" Not only do these guys have a double-standard morality, they have a double-standard when it comes to their own positive cases versus the positive cases of the opposition. Oscar Thiboduax is all over the place.

"All the Father gives will come....no one can come unless the father draws."

And, how could Jesus say this? Does the Father peer into the future and see who "comes" by their own undetermined free will, and then "give" these people to Jesus and say, "Here, I am giving you these people?" That seems stupid. If they "came," to Jesus on their own then it seems as if the "coming" would have been prior to the "giving;" yet, Jesus says the "giving" is prior to the coming!

Also, I have logically demonstrated that those raised are those drawn and hence able to come. Jesus links the drawing and giving for us:

39And this is the will of him who sent me, that I should lose nothing of all that he has given me, but raise it up on the last day.

Since my argument above stands undefeated, then I have just shown the link between drawing and giving.

Thibodaux needs to actually start arguing rather than his throwing out pithy little quips without attendant arguments or exegesis. He's just being a sophist. Trying to slip out of the trouble he's in.

I WROTE: You're not even engaging my point. Again, the point is in the conjunction. John 6:44 is saying (~p --> ~q) & r. This is logically equivalent to (q-->p) & r.

OSCAR RESPONDS: Because the starting premise on which he bases his logic is unsubstantiated. Paul tries his equation again, expecting a different outcome. As usual, he's stuck with no way of inextricably tying the resurrection with being drawn rather than coming to Christ; or as Steve Witzki notes,



Jesus could have said, "No one can believe in me unless the Father who sent me draws him, and the one who believes in Me (in response to this drawing), I will raise him up on the last day." But since he already affirmed to his listeners that they must come to or believe in Him in order to receive the promises, it was not necessary to emphasize it here. Jesus' concern was to emphasize God's sovereign initiative that precedes and enables the human response of faith.


i) What do you mean the premise is unsubstantiated? I showed how Jesus words can be translated into formal logical language. What? can we no longer apply logic to the Bible? When Jesus says,

"Whoever believes in me shall not perish"

we can't say that that can be translated to something like this:

(x)(Px & Bxj) --> ~(3y) (Byj & Dy)

?

ii) I tied the resurrection to the one being drawn. If Oscar Thibodaux thinks a premise is wrong, then let him show it. My syllogism says everything the verse says and leaves nothing out. Again, THE VERSE SAYS NOTHING ABOUT THE ONE WHO ACTUALLY COMES TO CHRIST. Oscar Thibodaux is forced to eisogete the verse in order to get around the compelling logic.

iii) His "theologian" brought in for support makes a similar error. He says, "and the one who believes in Me (in response to this drawing)..." But the text doesn't even speak about the one who actually comes, or actually believes. They are forced to cheat in order to answer the Calvinist argument. Yes, Jesus previously said that people must come to him. But this begs the question. What we have here is Jesus explaining who will be able to come. And then, by the force of the logic, the text reads those all those able to come, and all those drawn, will be raied up. I'm not making this stuff up. This is just the logic of the situation. Complaining about logic won’t get you anywhere, Thibodaux. The more you try to hammer logic, the more it hammers you. So, you'll have to go another route other then the eisogetical and anti-intellectual route.

Time for J.C. Thibodaux to go back home:



Bye J.C., have a good night sleep.

Orthoducks-hunting

I won’t respond to everything the hostile commenters have said, in part because Jason, Gene, and S&S have already made many of the necessary corrections.

JIMMY SAID:

“Metzger is like a human xerox machine. He doesn't do much in depth research, but he's good at repeating stuff he heard.”

To say that Metzger didn’t do much in-depth research is a total falsehood. It betrays the insecurity of his Orthodox faith that Jimmy has to resort to such demonstrably false statements. Here’s an overview of Metzger’s scholarship:

***Quote***

Internationally recognized as a leading NT textual critic, Metzger was arguably the greatest textual specialist and biblical translator America has produced. Among his many publications, pride of place belongs to his trilogy on the text, versions, and canon of the NT. Most widely influential is his handbook on The Text of the New Testament (1964; translations include German, Japanese, Korean, Chinese, Italian, and Russian; 3d, enl. ed. 1992; 4th ed. with Bart Ehrman, 2005), from which multiple generations of textual critics learned their craft. It presented (in a genuinely balanced and pedagogically useful form) the essentials of what would later be termed "reasoned eclecticism," the dominant approach in the discipline today (his influence with regard to methodology was extended even more widely by A Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament). Without rival in the field, and an outstanding example of Metzger's wide-ranging and encyclopedic knowledge, is his Early Versions of the New Testament (1977), which surveys not only the expected major versions, but also many minor ones (e.g., Thracian and Sogdian). The Canon of the New Testament (1987) combines careful and erudite attention to historical matters with a concern for theological questions and implications — another typically Metzgerian characteristic.

Metzger's recognition as a leading NT textual critic is due also to his influential role as a member of the editorial committee responsible initially for The Greek New Testament and later for the Nestle-Aland Novum Testamentum Graece, and also his involvement in, and leadership of, the International Greek New Testament Project (1948-1984).

The full breadth of Metzger's scholarship is most visible in his hundreds of articles, which cover textual criticism, philology, palaeography and papyrology, classical topics, Greco-Roman religions, the Hebrew Bible, the Apocrypha, the New Testament, patristics, early church history, and Bible translation (to name only the major areas). In addition he has published (in at least two dozen journals) reviews of hundreds of books written in eight languages. A master of bibliographic detail, Metzger would find that telling reference in sources the rest of us did not know existed (see, e.g., p. 271 n. 28 in the latest edition of the Text of the NT). In a remarkable feat, Metzger published in eight different decades: his first article appeared in 1938, and his most recent book in 2006.

http://www.sbl-site.org/publications/article.aspx?articleId=638

***End-Quote***

Continuing with Jimmy:

“They've found inscriptions from the time of Christ in Greek on the ruins of a synagogue mentioning the leader's name in Greek. It appears there were Greek speaking synagogues. Thus the earliest Christian community received the LXX.”

i) The earliest Christian communities included Gentile Christians, Hellenistic Jews, and Palestinian Jews.

ii) To say that some Christian communities received the LXX doesn’t imply the identity of the 1C LXX with the version used by the Orthodox church.

“Firstly, no one can seriously claim that by the time of Christ the LXX has anything specificallly to do with Alexandria. By this time it was all over the world.”

Irrelevant. Alexandria was the capital of Hellenistic Judaism. If the LXX canon was fluid even in a place like Alexandria, one can hardly appeal to the LXX to establish the Orthodox canon.

“But other rabbis from the same era did quote from them.”

Are you referring to Talmudic sources? That would be a secondary source for what 1C rabbis supposedly believed. By contrast, Philo is a primary source.

“Though Origen lists what local Jews considered the canon in his time, he did not restrict himself thus.”

You’re resorting to ambiguity. What, exactly, was Origen’s position on the Apocrypha? Ambivalent, perchance?

“And among all these learned quotes, do we see any evidence of what the actual Hebrew canon of Jesus' time was? Nope. Just rumour and innuendo.”

We also don’t find any evidence of how to change a flat tire in Metzger’s book. Metzger’s book is a monograph on the Apocrypha. He’s not attempting to make a full-course case for the Palestinian canon.

Other scholars have done so, e.g. Roger Beckwith, E. E. Ellis.

“First of all it begs the question of a need for a standard critical edition of the set of books that are the Orthodox canon of Scripture. Critical editions of texts are a uniquely modernist development based on Enlightenment epistemological presuppositions not shared by either Jesus or the Apostles.”

i) If Healy is indifferent to textual criticism, then his appeal to Jesus and the apostles begs the question. For his appeal assumes that we have a reliable textual witness to the words of Jesus and the apostles. So Healy needs to identify and justify his textual tradition.

ii) We know that the process of transcription gives rise, over time, to a discrepancy between what an author or speaker originally said or wrote, and the record of his speech or writing.

For those of us to take the word of God seriously, it makes a difference to us what Jesus, the prophets, and apostles actually said. It makes a difference to us whether the words attributed to them are authentic or spurious.

But, to judge by their reaction, Orthodox believers don’t care what Jesus, the prophets, or the apostles really said. They don’t care if they attribute inspiration to uninspired scribal errors or interpolations.

“It also presupposes and imposes on the biblical canon an understanding of accuracy that is predicated upon the original texts and the individual words and particles of that text.”

The meaning of a sentence is dependent on the individual words and particles that compose that sentence. Suppose we were to tamper with Healy’s sentence, changing a word here or there. That could alter the meaning of his sentence.

“The non sequitor, of course, is that absent a standardized text critical edition of the Scripture that utilizes modernist presuppositions about accuracy of the text, no group can claim a canon of Scriptural texts.”

I’m more interested in Healy’s indifference to textual integrity. Suppose the text were 90% corrupt. Would that still be adequate according to Healy?

“That is to say it the other way around, simply because one cannot bring forth a standardized (according to modernist mores) text of, say, Jeremiah (which is a mess in the LXX).”

So Jeremiah is a mess in the LXX. That’s a striking admission from an Orthodox epologist. Why should a Protestant favor the LXX version of Jeremiah over the MT if, by Healy’s own admission, the LXX version is a mess? Why should the messy standard of the LXX be the standard of comparison?

“It presupposes that a canon necessitates strict verbal identity between manuscripts, or at least a recoverable approximation of the autograph.”

No, what it presupposes is that we should make a good faith effort, with the best available evidence, to have an edition that approximates the Urtext.

To the degree that it doesn’t approximate the Urtext, then we don’t have the words of Jesus or the apostles or the prophets. Instead, we have the words of an anonymous, uninspired scribe. Is that what Healy is basing his faith on?

We don’t need a perfect text, any more than we need perfect eyesight or hearing or a perfect memory to do God’s will. But it is incumbent on us to make a good faith effort to use the evidence which God has providentially put at our disposal.

“Origen and Jerome included these books in their versions of the Old Testament, and in so doing testified to the widespread use of these books as Christian Scripture.”

In discussing both the separation of the church from the synagogue as well as the transition from the scroll to the codex, Metzger has already explained how Apocryphal works could infiltrate the canon of Scripture. So widespread use is not a mark of authenticity.

“Also, what Protestants fail to appreciate is that our earliest surviving codices were not simply editions of the New Testament which we use as witnesses of manuscript traditions and families, but, were, in fact, among the first complete Christian Bibles, and included in their contents, those ‘extra, apocryphal’ books.”

Since, in the material I quoted from Metzger, he himself discusses that very point, I wouldn’t be quoting that portion of Metzger if I failed to appreciate that particular point.

As Metzger explained, these editions functioned as Christian lectionaries. It was convenient to include other Christian literature, along with the canonical books, in one compact source.

“So, in point of fact, the Protestant excision of these books from their Bibles is a departure from the canonical traditions of the Church.”

i) The Protestant canon was never predicated on lock-step adherence to the “canonical traditions of the Church.”

ii) These editions include Christian literature which was excluded from the canonical traditions of the church. For example, Codex Sinaiticus includes Barnabas and Hermas while Codex Alexandrinus includes 1-2 Clement. So Healy’s argument is self-refuting.

“Unlike Protestants, Orthodox do not believe that Scripture alone establishes doctrine and Tradition. Rather, Scripture itself is the primary but not the sole witness to the Apostolic Tradition. That is to say, Scripture does not stand over Tradition in the sense of judging it, but stands with Tradition as authoritative co-witness to the Apostolic Faith and way of life.”

If you’re indifferent (indeed, hostile) to NT textual criticism, then you’re indifferent to what the Apostles actually said. In that case, you’re indifferent to the Apostolic faith. You don’t care whether your faith is apostolic or spurious.

“That is to say, Scripture was not read as a book alone, isolated from a communal and worship context.”

Healy is obfuscating the issue by blurring the distinction between the identity of Scripture and its practical function in the life of the church. One must *have* a Bible before it can be put to use.

“This does not mean that Orthodox do not have a canonical tradition for Scripture, and thus do not have a Bible, but, rather, that their Bible is the same Bible with allowable variations.”

i) Having a canonical *tradition* of Scripture is not the same thing as having *Scripture*. The question is whether the tradition corresponds to its putative object. The Mormons also have a canonical tradition of Scripture.

ii) To say the Orthodox Bible is the *same* Bible with *allowable variations* is an evasive and tendentious equivocation of terms.

“Of course, looking at Orthodoxy from the lense of Protestantism further assumes that Protestantism is the standard by which the historical Church is to be judged.”

Of course, looking at Evangelicalism from the lens of Orthodoxy further assumes that Orthodoxy is the standard by which the historical Church is to be judged.

JIMMY SAID:

“So why don't you throw out Esther since the majority of the witnesses exclude it?”

Do they now? Esther’s “canonicity has been attested by Josephus, by Aquila, by the baraita on the order of the Prophets and Hagiographa, by the inclusion in the Mishnah of a tractate on the obligation to read the book (the tractate Megillah), and by the citation of the book as authoritative Scripture in the other Tannaitic literature,” R. Beckwith, The Old Testament Canon of the New Testament Church, 290.

By contrast, the Essenes opposed it because it conflicted with their sectarian calendar—but the Essenes were a fringe group.

“You ARE willing to go with what evidence you have, right?? Or are you just bluffing?”

I’ve now laid my cards on the table. Time for you to show your hand. Where’s your counterevidence? Or are you just bluffing?

“In part yes, because they are but individuals attesting to what they know in their place and time, without access to the reflection of further centuries of God's people.”

I)“Further centuries” take us further away from historical witnesses who would be closer to the relevant evidence.

ii) Moreover, as Metzger documents, the OT canon of the Orthodox church is fluid throughout the history of the Orthodox church.

“Really, so a Christ-rejecting Jew carries more weight.”

What makes you think that 3C BC Jews are fundamentally different from 1C AD Jews? If the Jews are so untrustworthy, why do you put your faith in Jewish translation of the OT (the LXX)—even assuming that the Orthodox version corresponds to the original?

“Great, except that Jospehus lists no canon.”

This is simpleminded. One can reconstruct his canon from what he says. One place to start is: S. Leiman, “Josephus and the Canon of the Bible,” L. Feldman & G. Hata, eds. Josephus, the bible and history (Detroit 1989), 50-58. Follow that up with Beckwith’s detailed analysis.

“You can't prove what the ancient Jews had as a canon.”

We don’t have to reinvent the wheel every time an Orthodox apparatchik drops in. What Protestant scholars have you bothered to read on the subject, anyway? Have you read Ellis, Bruce, Beckwith, Hanhart, &c.?

Have you studied the intertextuality of Scripture?

“And yet your Metzger quotes concede that the very earliest Christians used an expanded LXX canon. Go read Metzger again.”

And Metzger also explains how they got off track in so doing. Go read Metzger again.

“How do conflicting Jewish sources trump conflicting Christian sources? What nonsense.”

Earlier sources generally trump later sources. That’s a standard presumption in historiography.

“But this best evidence, is simply the opinion of some Jews. Why you think this is good evidence, but the opinion of the Church isn't, is completely mystifying.”

i) Your church doesn’t speak with one voice on the subject. It moves in zigzag fashion from one time and place to another. So we couldn’t follow your church even if we wanted to. If we tried to follow your directions, we would be backtracking, taking detours, going in circles, running into blind alleys, washed-out bridges, &c. It’s a roadmap to no man’s land.

ii) You need to make a case for your church before you can invoke the authority of your church to settle anything else.

“Josephus is not part of Holy Tradition.”

You haven’t given us any reason to credit “Holy Tradition.”

“LYOSHA07 SAID:

“At the time of Jesus, the state of the canon was in flux, both inside and outside of Palestine. Greek-speaking Jews by and large were very likely to use the Septuagint, and thus their canon(s) resembled the Eastern Orthodox and the Roman Catholics.”

You’re appealing to the 18C notion of an Alexandrian canon. This has been debunked by numerous scholars, viz. Beckwith, Bruce, Hanhart.

“You must remember that people then were very superstitious and illiterate.”

No more superstitious than in our own day, including secular superstitions like ufology, 9/11 conspiracy theories, &c.

And no one is more illiterate than Richard Dawkins or Christopher Hitchens when it comes to their knowledge of Christian theology or Evangelical scholarship.

“Jesus had a definite opinion with regards to the canon (even though nothing is stated to such effect in the New Testament).”

The NT is a major witness to the OT. For starters, read Beale & Carson’s (eds.) Commentary on the New Testament Use of the Old Testament.

“The Greek converts (such as Paul) must have (or at least, should have) done away with their traditional Septuagint canon and adopted the Palestinian canon, without this being indicated in the New Testament.”

Aside from your unfounded assumption about an Alexandrian canon, Paul was a Pharisee who studied in Jerusalem.

“Moreover, for your arguments to be accepted by RCs and EOs, you must convince them to accept these premises, particularly #2 and #3.”

To the extent that Catholic and Orthodox believers have nonnegotiable commitments to their sectarian belief-system, it’s beyond my power to convince them otherwise, but that’s not my responsibility.

“You cannot do this. But even if you could they wouldn't accept it, because they assume value the canons of the Greek Jews and those of the Christian Churches more than you do.”

This oversimplifies the evidence. As Metzger documents, many pre-Tridentine Catholic scholars favored the Hebrew canon. And contemporary Catholic scholars go their own way too.

“This only points to the impossibility of rational theological dialogue, especially when you are describing categories ("inspiration") that defy analysis or observation.”

You’re mental states are also unobservable. Therefore, you deny the possibility of rational dialogue about anything at all if empirical categories are the only categories you accept.

JIMMY SAID:

“Oh ok, so gives a rip what Philo quoted?”

We understand that you don’t give a rip, since you’re an Orthodox apparatchik—but for those of us who haven’t committed self-decapitation, the reason we care about what Philo quoted is because—as Metzger already explained—we we’d expect him to quote the Apocrypha if there were, indeed, an Alexandrian canon of the OT.

“Ok great, so please shut down this blog now since everyone is going to have a different opinion of what the internal evidence points to.”

i) I look forward to your polling data to bear out that universal claim. How many billions of people, living and dead, have you interviewed thus far?

ii) Unlike you, some of us care about the ways in which earlier books of the canon foreshadow later books, while later books allude to earlier books.

JNORM888 SAID:

“It never was when the Church was young and it never will be because Sola scriptura was never a doctrine of the Church. A difference in the Canon of scripture is only a problem for protestants because of their doctrine of sola scriptura.”

In other words, it’s irrelevant to you where revelation begins and leaves off. You don’t care about excluding some books in which God has spoken while including other books in which a false prophet has spoken. For you, the boundary between true and false prophecy is irrelevant.

“Most of your arguments against the Deutocanonicals are lame.”

What a compelling assertion! Who needs evidence when we have your ipse dixit!

“Everybody knows that the MSS is a post christian hebrew compilation that took about 900 years to edit.”

There’s no such thing as “the MSS.” “MSS” is an abbreviation for the plural form of manuscript.

i) Your blunder is a classic example of self-reinforcing ignorance. You don’t know enough to care, so you don’t care enough to know, and vice versa.

ii) There is such a thing as the MT. But Protestants don’t rely on the MT alone. That’s supplemented by the DSS, versional evidence, &c.

“Protestants had the Deuto's in their Bibles untill Calvinistic Bible Societies took them out in the 17 & 18 hundreds.”

Another good reason to be a Calvinist.

“The LXX was, is and always will be the christian Old Testament text.”

i) Where can I find the official edition of the LXX in the Orthodox church?

ii) Your assertion is unfortunate for your own position since the canonical edition of Daniel in your theological circles isn’t even based on the LXX:

“The longer version of Daniel is known primarily from the Greek, surviving in two rather different editions. The older edition, the ‘Septuagint’ proper, survives in its entirety only in a single manuscript, Codex Chisianus from the ninth century (Codes 87; Papyrus 967 contains chs. 5-14), and in the Syriac translation of Origen’s edition of the Septuagint (Pfeiffer 1949; 4:33,441; Moore 1977: 33). The more recent edition, called 'Theodotion,' displaced the older 'Septuagint' edition in the usage of the Christian church by the late third century, so that all the major codices of what we call the Septuagint actually contain the Theodotion edition Daniel…Theodotion prepared his version in the early second century CE, but appears to have utilized an earlier Greek text of Daniel that differed markedly from the Septuagint (Grelot 1966),” D. deSilva, Introducing the Apocrypha (Baker 2004), 222-223.

Continuing with JNORM888:

“And there is nothing you can say or do that will ever change that historical fact.”

And there is nothing you can say or do that will ever change the checkered history of the Apocrypha in the Orthodox church.

And there is nothing you can say or do that will ever change the checked history of the LXX.

And there is nothing you can say or do that will ever change the checked history of the Council of Ferrara-Florence.

LVKA SAID:

“Saying that THEN was just like saying some half-a-century ago that communism will eventually fall and succumb: it was just unthinkable at that particular time: that was Isaiah's prophecy, and it was breath-takingly unbelievable to say the least. :-|… You just can't ‘deduce’ from the text itself, -were it to read "young woman"-, the idea that what You should *actually* look for over there is a miraculous or super-natural [virginal] bith: it's just not possible. :-\”

Protestant scholars have no difficulty establishing the Christian interpretation of Isa 7 from the MT. Read J. A. Motyer’s “Content and Context in the interpretation of Isaiah 7:14,” TynB 21 (1970), 118-25.

JIMMY SAID:

“There's a big difference between what Tacitus wrote about some Emperor and what some Jew writes about the canon. The canon is a theological question.”

It’s also a historical question. And you would need to furnish some hard evidence that the Jews were suppressing OT books which contain Messianic prophecy. But as Jason and I have pointed out, if that was their method and motive, then they managed to overlook many OT books which house a mother-lode of Messianic prophecy (e.g. Isaiah, Daniel, the Psalter) while—on the other hand—I notice that Orthodox apologists are very selective about which books of the Apocrypha they mine for Messianic prophecy.

Not only is there no evidence to substantiate your conspiracy theory, but plenty of counterevidence.

“This is about as good as what Josephus tells us - an apologetic for his own flawed, theologically heretical sect.”

There’s no evidence that the Pharisees had a heretical view of OT the canon.

JEFFREY LEVINE SAID:

“The Jews living at the time of Jesus, had no problem rejecting him. Gentiles with ni knowledge of Judaism were the only people to accept Jesus as Christ, and most of thise people were coerved by force!”

Since, except for Luke (who was likely a proselyte), every other NT writer was a Jew, your statement is clearly false. In addition, there were Messianic (i.e. Jewish-Christian) churches in the 1C

“G-d through the Torah gave the Jewish people a number of indicators that would readily identify the awaited messiah. The only requirement that Jesus did fulfill was that he was born of a Jewish mother. G-d was not intended to be the father of the Messiah.__When you examine these passages, you will realize that Jesus was nothing more than a regular man. That is why the Jews rejected Jesus. He was not the Messiah. If you can't accept that, check with the Jewish Torah (not the Christian version). It will teach you everything you need to know!”

What Christian books or articles on Messianic prophecy have you actually read? Try the following:

http://findarticles.com/p/articles/mi_qa3817/is_200103/ai_n8935232/print

http://www.amazon.com/Answering-Jewish-Objections-Jesus-vol/dp/080106063X/ref=sr_1_2?ie=UTF8&s=books&qid=1205093310&sr=1-2

http://www.amazon.com/Look-Rock-Testament-Background-Understanding/dp/product-description/0825431697

http://www.amazon.com/Servant-King-Bibles-portrait-Messiah/dp/1573832634

http://www.amazon.com/Christ-Prophets-O-Palmer-Robertson/dp/0875525644

“You should also remember that there is not a single mention of this person named Jesus oputside of the Chritian Bible. Forget about the Josephus forgeries.”

i) You’ve been corrected on Josephus.

ii) Tacitus and Pliny the Younger name Christ.

iii) What evidence do you have for the existence of Moses outside the OT?

The Talmud is too late and too derivative to corroborate the existence of Moses.

Trash-talkin' Arminians

I would note in passing the irony of Arminians like Thibodeaux and Kangaroodort who profess to be horrified by discourteous discourse while they express their horror in derisive terms, of which this is but the latest specimen:

http://www.junkyard.indeathorlife.org/

Well, since the Arminian position lacks either exegetical or logical consistency, it’s not surprising that it also lacks moral consistency.

Moving along:

“Then Hays goes at it; concerning Jeremiah 32:35…Boy, Hays really doesn't understand a fairly simple idiom, does he?…There's no reason to stretch this into some convoluted anthropomorphism…”

Boy, J.C. really doesn’t understand a fairly simple anthropomorphism, does he? To apply a distinctly human idiom (e.g. “It never entered my mind”) to God is a classic case of anthropomorphic discourse.

“So to answer Hays' hollow charges, recognizing basic expressions is not 'running away from the actual wording,' but rather taking the words in their context. Of course speaking contrary to his own logic, Hays should know that I can't 'run' from a meaning, as meanings don't have spatial coordinates. Oh, wait, that was a fairly simple expression, wasn't it?”

This is another example of J.C’s incomprehension, piggybacking on the last example. To apply a distinctly human idiom to a human being would not be a case of anthropomorphic discourse. Talking about God in human terms, and talking about humans in human terms, is not the same issue. Therefore, my usage was perfectly consistent.

“Of course not, I simply contest that Hays version of predestination is unsupported anywhere biblically,”

To say that he is “simply contesting” predestination is not a counterargument.

“And is flatly contradicted here.”

I explained in some detail why it’s not contradicted by Jer 32:35. For J.C. to merely repeat his original contention is not a counterargument.

“Which we just covered above, hence his objections on the basis of us not knowing how divine foreknowledge works are pointless.”

i) J.C’s “coverage” consisted of repetitious denials. A denial is not a disproof.

ii) And even if the first-point of my 3-point rebuttal was unsound, J.C. leaves the other two points intact.

“Hays also says a bit about foreknowledge…Hays is essentially saying, 'only what will occur is an actual possibility', which of course begs the question of determinism.”

J.C. is too dim to follow his own argument. I was answering him on his own grounds. He’s the one who said that God “knows perfectly well what will happen regardless of the possibilities.”

But if God knows the outcome, then the outcome cannot be otherwise.

This is not dependent on “determinism.” It’s about certainty rather than causality. J.C. keeps ignoring this elementary distinction.

“He uses this reasoning to make events out to be contingent on foreknowledge again.”

My argument doesn’t make events contingent on foreknowledge. I haven’t treated foreknowledge as a causal factor which secures the outcome.

Rather, if a future event is known, then it cannot be otherwise. It can’t be either A or B if it’s known to be A. That’s question of logical necessity, not causal determinism.

J.C. would do well to drop the haughty attitude if he’s going to keep committing these intellectual blunders.

[I said] The Bible grounds divine foreknowledge in God’s knowledge of his own plan for the world (e.g. Isa 46:10-11). Cf. J. Oswalt, The Book of Isaiah: Chapters 40-66 (Eerdmans 1998), 236-37.

“Not exclusively.”

To the contrary, Isaiah’s claim moves from the general to the specific. The dependence of foreknowledge on foreordination in this instance is just a special case of a universal principle. Read Oswalt’s exegesis for the supporting argument.

“He can 'step into' time, so to speak, he isn't bound by it.”

i) That’s an assertion, not an argument. J.C. needs to present a supporting. His earlier appeal to theophanies failed, for reasons I gave. Observe his inability to offer a counterargument.

A theophany is not identical with God qua God. It conceals as well as reveals.

That’s how Scripture explains the way in which God is both visible and invisible. No man can see God and live. But a man can see a theophany and live. Moses saw a theophanic angelophany, which is distinct from seeing God qua God. Cf. Exod 33-34. A theophany subsists in time and space, but God does not.

ii) To say that God is partly temporal and partly atemporal simply combines the difficulties of both positions, for reasons I already gave. Once again, J.C. offers no counterargument.

“Which only works out if one assumes determinism as a necessity.”

J.C. keeps making the same mistakes. He should try to master the elementary distinction between causal determinism and logical necessity.

If the future is known, then it can’t be otherwise. That’s not an argument predicated on determinism. Rather, it’s an argument predicated on logic. Learn the difference.

“Same.”

Same intellectual confusion on his part.

“Translation: ‘What? I'm just taking his quote out of context?’ As I've pointed out before, is that God can enter time and perform actions temporally as well. In other words, He can perform things temporally, He's simply not bound by time, so it still works out even from a divine viewpoint despite Hays burying his head in the ground.”

A timeless God can *effect* things in time. This doesn’t mean that *God* is in time. Likewise, God doesn’t have to be material to effect things in space.

“Again applying temporal constraints to knowledge that transcends time.”

ii) Notice his little shellgame. When I point out the temporal constraints on knowledge, he shifts to divine atemporality. When I point out the atemporal constraints on knowledge, he shifts to divine temporality.

That’s an attempt to evade the problem rather than explain the problem.

“That God's completely omniscient? I'm perfectly entitled to make such a claim.”

Another naked assertion in lieu of an argument.

“Hays falls into his own trap of ‘usage, not etymology, determines the meaning of a word’ in taking his particular view of 'gnosis' and flatly assuming that 'prognosis' consistently carries the same connotation in 'covenant settings.' Even in covenant settings, 'yada' doesn't necessarily imply choosing, can mean cognitive knowledge as well (see Isaiah 29:24, for instance).”

Since Isa 24:29 doesn’t use yada in reference to God relationship with his covenant people, J.C’s citation is irrelevant.

“Which essentially states that it means 'forelove,' which I show evidence against in a separate article (i.e. 'prognosis' doesn't carry with it any connotations of special, relational knowledge).”

i) Murray didn’t say that proegno *means* “forelove.” Rather, he said that’s the divine motive for electing some sinners (i.e. God’s discriminating love).

ii) Anyway, we can reject the “forelove” connotation, if J.C. has a problem with that, and simply take it to mean that God chose them beforehand. That’s the basic import of the verb. And you don’t have to be a Calvinist to say that. Read the analysis of Witherington (Arminian) or Fitzmyer (Jesuit).

iii) J.C. Also disregards the relation between the two verbs, even though that’s in direct answer to his own query. In this verse, predestination is not redundant, for the verb doesn’t stand alone. Rather, Paul adds a purpose-clause to explain what the elect were chosen for: to be conformed to the image of Christ. So the Reformed reading of this verse tracks a logical progression: those whom God chose beforehand he predestined to be conformed to the image of his Son.

The first verb has a retrospective orientation while the second verb has a prospective orientation.

“Which I wasn't answering in that specific article. Not sure what Steve was getting at there.”

J.C. can’t remember his own argument. He was attempting to deflect the force of Welty’s arguments by referring the reader to some stuff on his website: “I deal with the usual Calvie objections to foreknowledge in the articles on my site.”

Now, however, he admits that his articles are irrelevant to Welty’s specific arguments.

"’I drew them with cords of a man, with bands of love’ plainly is, despite Hays lame attempts to downplay it as such.”

J.C. blithely disregards the standard exegetical literature I cited, which establishes the meaning (and imagery) of the Hebrew terms in this verse. J.C. has all the scholarship of a backwoods snake-handler.

“Which doesn't change the fact that it portrays God drawing people by His love, my original point.”

i) Notice the bait-and-switch tactic. “Drawing” and “wooing” are not synonymous concepts. One doesn’t “woo” a person with ropes and cords—unless J.C. has a kinky notion of courtship or dating.

ii) And, as Gene pointed out, this chapter is an extended metaphor for the Exodus. God didn’t deliver his people from Egypt by “wooing” them or “wooing” the Pharaoh. If you think the ten plagues, the fiery snakes, &c. are a form of wooing, then I hate to think how J.C. would define coercion.

“Libertarian free will giving me the power to change absolutely anything I want as opposed to merely contrary choice was an actual argument? Wow, that's even sillier than it being mockery.”

Once again, J.C. is impotent to actually defend his position. Adjectives and exclamations are no substitute for arguments.

Saturday, March 08, 2008

LFW Gone Wild

I asked

Why do people choose x and not y given the contraints of LFW? Put another way, why does one person believe and not another?

JCT replied
Because they make a decision to given the choices, it wouldn't be LFW if they couldn't.

This begs the question for LFW. It does not answer the question, "why do people choose x and not y" given the constraints of LFW. Saying "Because they make a decision" is not an answer to the question. It merely restates the question and, at best, moves the question back one step. JCT, do you listen to yourself as you type these answers? "Why does a person choose x and not y?" Answer: Because they make a choice, eg. because they make a decision."

That said, what this illustrates is the inability of the Libertarians to account for causality. Why does one person make that decision given the options? This is a perfectly legitimate question that the Libertarian, as JCT so ably demonstrates, cannot answer coherently. It would be more honest to say, "I don't know, it's a mystery" than to give the answer he gave.

There are two reasons I constantly ask Arminians this question:

1. To demonstrate their inability to answer this question.
2. To demonstrate how unbiblcial the answer is. The Bible ascribes our choices to our motives. So, this is the question Arminians desperately wish to avoid, for it exposes them to a classic dilemma:

a. Admit they can't answer.
b. Admit that the person believed because he was more spiritual, smarter, more afraid, or any other reason.

Steve has already replied to a number JCT's statements, I'll simply second his reply and add my own material.

No it doesn't, as I'm speaking of God's omniscience from a temporal, human perspective when I say 'before.'

This was not in JCT's original statements.

Negative, to one whose knowledge transcends time, they are knowable outside of their being instantiated, as He sees the end as clearly as the beginning.

Wrong, this does not address the knowability of the object of knowledge at all. Indeed, He only knows them because they are instantiated, not outside of their being instantiated. If He knew them outside of the fact, He would know them without them being instantiated at all.

You're confusing the issue, as God's timelessness is what enables Him to know decisions before they are made.

To say that God clearly sees the future begs the question.

Appealing to the timelessness of God says nothing, not a word, about the knowability of libertarian choices. Indeed it merely begs the question that they are knowable to God. The question he needs to answer, and which he hasn't answered is how our LIBERTARIAN choices are knowable since they don't exist in any mind except the mind of the agent and are not knowable until they are instantiated.

His answer is God knows them before we do, from our standpoint, but not His. However, this doesn't answer the question how God could know them before they were instantiated at all, for they can only be done as a product of their instantiation. They are only knowable after they are instantiated by the agent.

Now, it's true that the timelessness of God means that all things are "eternally simultaneous" to God, but that's an ontological category. Here, we're talking about telelogy, a distinct epistemological category. God understands relational sequence, that 1, for example, comes before 2. But if the question is "1 or 2?" and that question is answered only by an agent other than God, then how does He know the answer to it prior to the agent making the decision? How is it knowable in God's mind, if it's only in the mind of the agent? Appealing to timelessness merely begs the question.

The fact that it is resistible means its ineffectual.

Yeah, there's bullet-resistant vests, which makes bullets ineffectual weapons. Great logic. For the record Gene, I consider TD very much a 'functional category;' I'd explain the rest of my beliefs to you, but you appear to have your mind made up about them already, so I won't confuse you with the facts.
That little ditty comes from his statement that the UPG is effectual. However, it's a simple fact that UPG is not at all effectual, since it doesn't effectually draw anybody.

UPG makes TD (Total Depravity) cease to be a functional category. Men need UPG in order to have LFW. But PG is UPG, so TD is thereby not functional as a category. It only functions on paper; in practice everybody has LFW, which gets Arminianism tarred, rightly, with functional Semi-Pelagianism.

A Study in Contradiction

In the UK:

On the one hand the Archbishop of Canterbury says Britain should adopt parts of Sharia law.

On the other, the homosexual superrights lobby has so influenced the government that Sunday School teachers can be denied as foster parents.

But this poses quite the dilemma for a man like Richard Dawkins, who believes, if you'll recall, that there are genes that control whether one is a believer or not. On that view, then, believing in God and the tenets of a religion would also be biological in nature.

Note one of the comments attached to the second article:

The issue here is about tolerance and bigotry. This couple are obviously very good foster parents, but their inflexible Christian standpoint (which actually means one must question their Christianity) means that they are patently unsuitable for nurturing children in the 21st century.

Unlike drug abuse, promiscuity, violence et al, homosexuality is not a lifestyle choice which can be 'parented out' of well adjusted children, homosexuality is fully accepted in civilised societies as an irreversible, birth given characteristic. To not condone this simple fact is tantamount to bigotry. And we all know where that leads to.
This must be quite the quandry for the Nuffidians in the UK. On the one hand, they'll side with the homosexuals and say discrimination if "bigotry" on the presumption that homosexuality is genetic/biological, yet on the other they'll argue that being a believer is also genetic/biological. I suppose some forms of bigotry are less important than others.

The Foolishness of the Cross

INTRODUCTION (1 Cor. 1:18-25)

I have had the pleasure of preaching the gospel open-air two times per month for about six years. Every time I preach to a group of God-hating sinners and hear their heckling, I am reminded of just how scandalous they think the gospel really is. Many have told me outright how foolish it is to think that a crucified Jewish man from ancient Palestine was the very incarnation of God Almighty and that by having faith in His death, burial, and resurrection, you can have eternal life. Yes indeed, repentance and faith placed in a crucified God-man plus nothing is a scandalous and foolish message to the mind of the modern unbeliever. It is scandalous because a crucified and resurrected Jesus is seen as grossly irrelevant to a postmodern mind bathed in human wisdom and foolish because the gospel message is so simple and its simplicity adds to its already ridiculous nature.

Paul was dealing with essentially the same problem with the divided Corinthian church. Because they had been thoroughly immersed into the worldly philosophy of Hellenistic dualism, they believed that salvation was an escape or a “getting away” from the world and the body. As a result, they sought human “wisdom” and “knowledge”, had an over-spiritualized view of the ordinances, and some even denied the physical, tomb-emptying resurrection of the dead at the end of history due to an overrealized eschatology (1:22; 15:12). Because some in the Corinthian church had imbibed man’s worldly philosophy and attempted to mix it with biblical truth, they believed that “salvation” consisted of experiencing a weird kind of ultimate, transcendent spirituality in which the “saved” were said to be presently living on a higher spiritual plane, far above the mundane material existence of the present age.

Because the anti-Pauline factions in the church saw a need to “examine” Paul since he seemed to be devoid of the message of divine wisdom (i.e., the Greek concept of sophia = Corinthian “wisdom”; cf. 9:1-19; 4:12; Acts 18:3), they further wondered if he was really a prophet of God (cf. 1 Cor. 14:37 and 2nd Corinthians) since he lacked the oratorical skills necessary for being a good Greek philosopher, especially when Paul didn’t match up to what they thought true divine wisdom should look like and sound like (cf. 2:6; 3:1; 1:17; 2:1-5). So, having already set up the contrast in verse 17 between the “cleverness of [man’s] speech” versus the powerful preaching of the cross, he further develops this contrast in verses 18-25. In those verses, Paul sets them straight about where God’s power, wisdom, and strength lies; which is not in man’s wisdom, but in God’s wisdom.

I. The Power of God’s Message (v. 18).

II. The Preeminence of God’s Wisdom (vv. 19-20).

III. The Strength of God’s Weakness (vv. 21-25).

TEACHING/APPLICATION

I. The Power of God’s Message (v. 18).

NAU 1 Corinthians 1:18 For the word of the cross is foolishness to those who are perishing, but to us who are being saved it is the power of God. – In this verse, Paul tells us that the cross of Christ is not something that someone may add human wisdom to and in so doing make it more superior. Instead, the cross stands in absolute, uncompromising opposition to human wisdom. Paul wants the Corinthian church to understand that the gospel, the message of the cross is not some new philosophy or new variety of human wisdom (sophia) coming onto the scene nor is it something that can be judged and put under the scrutiny of man. Paul says that this “word of the cross” can never be subjected to man’s standard of what greatness is, because man’s standard of greatness would empty the cross of its power by making it acceptable, tolerant, broad, wide, and shallow. Paul tells them (and us) that the true gospel “is foolishness to those who are perishing”. He wants the reader to understand that no one in their right mind would have ever dreamed this up as a way to be reconciled to God. A crucified Messiah is too humiliating and too much of a contradiction to man’s idea of what god should be. But of course, that is why man always strives to add something to the work of Jesus. It’s just too much for prideful man to handle the fact that all of the work has already been done on the cross and man can add nothing to it. For Paul, the cross cannot be changed, mixed with, or added to man’s philosophy and wisdom. To go beyond the cross by adding anything to it or mixing anything with it is to strip the cross of its power. There is a message that contains human wisdom and a message that contains the cross and the two are mutually exclusive.

“ . . . those who are perishing, but to us who are being saved it is the power of God” – In the context of chapter one, those who are perishing are the unbelieving Jews and Gentiles and the ones who are being saved are the same people. Those who are being saved only differ from those who are not because of ultimately one reason, God’s sovereign and gracious heart-regenerating power (cf. Ezek. 36:25-27). For God says in verse 21, “For since in the wisdom of God the world through its wisdom did not come to know God, God was well-pleased through the foolishness of the message preached to save those who believe” and in verse 24, “but to those who are the called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God and the wisdom of God.” Since Paul has set up the general antithesis between the “cleverness of [human] speech” and philosophy and the divine “word of the cross”, he now moves on in verses 19-20 to show us how God’s wisdom destroys human wisdom.

Questions for reflection: (1) What is Paul’s main thrust in verse 18? (2) How can the cross be emptied of its power? What are some ways that we subtly do this? (3) Ultimately, what makes the difference between the saved and the lost? What effect should this have had upon the Corinthians and us today? (4) In what ways do some within modern evangelicalism reject the power of God in the preaching of the cross and render it foolishness?

II. The Superiority of God’s Wisdom (vv. 19-20).

NAU 1 Corinthians 1:19-20 For it is written, "I WILL DESTROY THE WISDOM OF THE WISE, AND THE CLEVERNESS OF THE CLEVER I WILL SET ASIDE.” 20 Where is the wise man? Where is the scribe? Where is the debater of this age? Has not God made foolish the wisdom of the world? – The fact that Paul starts to seal his case with an appeal to Scripture by stating “for it is written” shows that he will sufficiently seal his case by arguing that what God says is the final word when it comes to the ultimate starting point for achieving true wisdom. “I WILL DESTROY THE WISDOM OF THE WISE, AND THE CLEVERNESS OF THE CLEVER I WILL SET ASIDE.” Paul quotes Isaiah 29:14, which in its original OT context warns those in Israel not to try to match wits with God (cf. Isa. 40:12-14, 25; Job 38-42). But since it is human nature to think that we can outsmart God, Paul authoritatively quotes this Isaiah passage to show that it has found its New Covenant fulfillment in defeating the pagan wisdom that had infiltrated the Corinthian church.

“Where is the wise man? Where is the scribe? Where is the debater of this age? Has not God made foolish the wisdom of the world?” – In verse 20, Paul is reflecting back to Isaiah, where in 19:12 Isaiah says, “Well then, where are your wise men?” Quoting Isaiah, he is asking the Corinthians “Knowing what God has done through the cross, where are all your hotshot wise men? Has not God rendered both your Gentile (“wise man”) and Jewish (“scribe”) wise men foolish and brought their human wisdom to nothing? Where are your philosophical prize-fighters (“debater”)? Paul says that the cross is folly to the perishing, but by it, he has made the world’s wisdom truly foolish. He hasn’t merely made it to look foolish, but actually has turned human wisdom into its exact opposite: foolishness. Dr. John MacArthur appropriately states in regards to verse 20,

Could the apostle have written anything more appropriate for our own day? Where have our great thinkers – our philosophers, sociologists, psychologists, economists, scientists, and statesmen – brought us? Never before has mankind been so fearful of self-destruction of been so self-consciously perplexed, confused, and corrupt. Modern human wisdom has failed just as ancient human wisdom failed, except that its failures come faster and spread farther. The outer life improves in a material way, while the inner life seems to have correspondingly less meaning. The real issues are not resolved.[1]

Questions for reflection: (1) Paul was known for quoting pagan philosophers to show that they attested to at least some of what he was preaching (cf. Acts 17:28; Titus 1:12). In 1 Cor. 1:19, why is Paul concerned with quoting Scripture instead of pagan philosophers? What does that tell us about our own method of defending the faith? (2) In light of verse 20, what types of people make up the “prize-fighters” for human wisdom in our day? (3) According to Paul, how has “God made foolish the wisdom of the world”?

III. The Strength of God’s Weakness (vv. 21-25).

NAU 1 Corinthians 1:21-25 For since in the wisdom of God the world through its wisdom did not come to know God, God was well-pleased through the foolishness of the message preached to save those who believe. 22 For indeed Jews ask for signs and Greeks search for wisdom; 23 but we preach Christ crucified, to Jews a stumbling block and to Gentiles foolishness, 24 but to those who are the called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God and the wisdom of God. 25 Because the foolishness of God is wiser than men, and the weakness of God is stronger than men. – in verse 21, Paul says that a true knowledge of God cannot come through autonomous human philosophy because any “god” created in the minds of man to suit man will always be a projection of man’s sinful, fallen mind and will be a source of pride and boasting. However, since God saves people only through the foolish message of the cross; a message found only in God-ordained apostolic preaching and not in human wisdom; there is no room whatsoever for boasting about the effectiveness human wisdom to save men from their sins. And so, the effectiveness and offense of the “message” preached (Gk. kergyma) lies not in the preacher, but in the content of the message, which is a crucified Messiah Jesus.

For indeed Jews ask for signs and Greeks search for wisdom; 23 but we preach Christ crucified, to Jews a stumbling block and to Gentiles foolishness, - Since unbelieving Jews were known for wanting miraculous signs to believe that something was of God (Matt. 12:38-40) and Greeks thrived on human philosophy and wisdom, Paul contradicts their autonomous sinful desire with the ultimate divine contradiction: the scandalous (Gk. skandalon), foolish message of the crucified Jesus. To have a crucified Messiah was a contradiction in terms; it was like having “fried ice”. To the Jews, you can have a Messiah reigning on a physical Davidic throne that has overthrown Rome, but not a crucified one. A crucified man was a cursed man, and it was the highest blasphemy to ascribe deity to One whom the Jews believed that God had cursed (Deut. 21:23; Gal. 3:13)! It’s no wonder that Jesus was such a scandal to the Jews. To the unbelieving Greeks, Jesus was nothing more than madness and superstition. The Greeks thought that it was crazy to believe in a God that got Himself crucified by His own enemies. What a preposterous, strange, and superstitious display of weakness! Its no wonder that Christ crucified offended both groups of people; and it still does today. This desire for a “custom-fit” Jesus is easily seen in Paul’s division of humanity into the two classes of Jew and Gentile, and it’s also a great illustration of the two great idolatries of mankind. Gordon Fee notes,

Thus the “Jews” and “Greeks” here illustrate the basic idolatries of humanity. God must function as the all-powerful or the all-wise, but always in terms of our best interests – power in our behalf, wisdom like ours! For both the ultimate idolatry is that of insisting that God conform to our own prior views as to how “the God who makes sense” ought to do things.[2]

Yes indeed, unbelieving people today desire the same idols that the unbelieving Jews and Gentiles of Paul’s day did, namely, they want a god that can give them humanistic power and wisdom when what they really need to hear is the powerful message of the cross, a simple message that they will consider foolish and scandalous.

[B]ut to those who are the called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God and the wisdom of God. - Now, since the omnipotent God is able to give the Jews plenty of signs and the Greeks plenty of wisdom, why would He leave them with something that both groups consider to be foolish? Paul’s answer is twofold: (1) The offensive message of a crucified Messiah was God’s ultimate expression of His “power” and “wisdom” and (2) this power and wisdom is only available to those of “the called, both Jews and Greeks”. This wisdom is reserved only for “those who believe” (v. 21), “those who are being saved” (v. 18), and they are believing and being saved because of God’s prior action on their behalf; they are those who are saints by God’s effectual calling unto salvation (cf. 1:1-2). It is those, and only those who will respond to God’s expression of wisdom in this crucified Messiah. It is only those who will seek, savor, hunger, and long for this crucified Messiah and it only those who will realize that this gospel is the “power of God to salvation for everyone who believes” (Rom. 1:16).

Because the foolishness of God is wiser than men, and the weakness of God is stronger than men. – The folly of the cross outsmarts man’s power and wisdom because God’s power and wisdom are revealed in the crucified Jesus. Because God’s wisdom and power are at work in the world through the preaching of the cross, it is the ultimate contradiction to man’s wisdom and power. To the perishing, the cross is foolish and weak, but it is God’s foolishness, and because of this, it is still stronger than anything man can think up or devise. In the cross of Jesus, God not only outsmarts sinful humans and makes their wisdom look stupid, but He also overpowers them by pouring upon them the unmerited grace of regeneration, forgiveness, and reconciliation and in doing so, He takes away their own self-serving strength.

Questions for reflection: (1) What kind of god does man create when he has the opportunity? How does this “god” become a source of pride and boasting? [v. 21] (2) Where should the effectiveness and the offense of the message of the cross come from? [v. 21] (3) Why is the cross considered then and now as the “ultimate divine contradiction”? [vv. 22-23] (4) Why was the cross a scandalous message for the Jews? The Greeks? (5) What does it mean for Paul to say that the foolishness of God wiser than men and the weakness of God stronger than men? How is this the case? [vv. 24-25]

CONCLUSION

God did not consult man and ask if we wanted a gospel that was suitable for the sign-seeker and the power-monger. We don’t have a “custom-fit” Jesus, complete with trimmings of worldly power, prestige, and success. Instead, God gives us a dangerous dilemma: Be saved by turning from our own wisdom and power and rest in His foolish-wisdom found in the cross of Christ, or do it our own way and perish. We’d do well to do it God’s way, because “the weakness of God is stronger than men” and that “weakness” brings us into “fellowship with His Son, Jesus Christ our Lord” (1:9). Such “weakness” in God is a scandal to those who think they are good people and have no need of forgiveness; but to those who are called and recognize that they are in need of His mercy, this is the good news that sets us free to follow him. And so, in the weakness of the cross we find God’s ultimate power, and in God’s powerful gospel, we see God’s ultimate wisdom. Would to God that we would all be humbled by the Sovereign and receive this message of eternal life.


[1] John MacArthur, The MacArthur New Testament Commentary on 1st Corinthians, (Chicago, Ill: Moody Press, 1984), 43.

[2] Gordon D. Fee, The First Epistle to the Corinthians. The New International Commentary on the New Testament, (Grand Rapids, MI: Eerdmans Publishing, 1987), 74.


Should We Trust "Christ-Rejecting Jews"?

In a recent thread, a poster by the screen name of Jimmy repeated an argument I’ve often seen used by Roman Catholics and Eastern Orthodox. He objected to a citation of Josephus on the subject of the Old Testament canon on the basis that Josephus was a “Christ-rejecting Jew”.

I think most people understand why such an objection is problematic. But since it seems that many Catholics and Orthodox don’t understand, I want to address the issue further.

A lot of people have rejected Christ. The Roman historian Tacitus rejected Christ, yet we trust much of what he reported about wars, taxes, Nero’s persecution of Christians, etc. I trust a weatherman who tells me that the temperature fell below freezing this morning, even if he’s an agnostic. I trust a taxi driver to get me to my destination, even if he’s a Muslim. Etc.

If Josephus writes about Jesus’ relative James, and he uses a particular Greek term to describe James’ relationship with Jesus, why can’t we cite Josephus’ choice of terminology as evidence relevant to the issue of the perpetual virginity of Mary? If Josephus uses Greek terms for “cousin”, “relative”, etc. in other passages, yet uses a term with a primary meaning of sibling when discussing James’ relationship with Jesus, then that choice of language has implications for the perpetual virginity of Mary. The fact that Josephus rejected Christ doesn’t eliminate the significance of his choice of terminology.

Any error committed by any source, including a rejection of Christ, undermines the general credibility of that source. But a source’s general credibility can be undermined without being eliminated. And the less of a connection there is between a source’s error and the subject under consideration, the less significance that error has. The church fathers were wrong on many issues. They sometimes made false historical claims, sometimes contradicted each other on doctrinal issues, etc. It doesn’t therefore follow that we can’t trust anything they said.

If we’re to dismiss Josephus on the issue of James’ relationship with Jesus, we need more than Josephus’ rejection of Christ to justify that dismissal. A rejection of Christ doesn’t imply a likelihood of wanting to misrepresent the relationship between Jesus and James. Similarly, a rejection of Christ doesn’t imply a rejection of the canonicity of Tobit. People like Jimmy need to make more of an effort to show a connection between the non-Christian status of a source like Josephus and that source’s alleged unreliability on an issue.

I’ve sometimes seen people, particularly Roman Catholics, suggest that the ancient Jews rejected the Apocrypha in response to Christianity. But while some of the early Christians accepted one or more Apocryphal books as scripture, the early Christians made far more use of other books the ancient Jews accepted, such as Isaiah and Daniel. If the ancient Jews were determining their canon on the basis of a desire to undermine Christianity, they could have done much better than removing books like Tobit and 1 Maccabees. And neither the earliest Christians nor the earliest Jews seem to have thought that there was some widespread acceptance of Apocryphal books that ceased in response to Christianity. Such a canonical change doesn’t seem to have been part of the earliest discussions between Judaism and Christianity. A Paul or a Justin Martyr will bring many charges against the Jews of their day, but such a canonical change isn’t one of them. That sort of canonical change doesn’t make sense, and the earliest sources don’t seem to be aware of any such change.

My point here, though, is that the testimony of a source like Josephus can’t be dismissed just because he was a “Christ-rejecting Jew”. We need more than that.

Friday, March 07, 2008

Kangaroo Court Hangs Jury

FALSE HOPE, NY – In an unprecedented legal move today, Judge Ben Kryin-Lotts ordered his entire jury hanged over “a simple disagreement.”

“We should treat each other as Christians,” Judge Ben stated. “Not like those salacious, disrespectful, slanderous, ignorant, discordant, reprobate fools on Triablogue who substitute insult for substantial responses. But what do you expect from trash?”

After executing the jury, Judge Ben went on to ban Triabloguers from his courtroom forever, even while saying he would continue to respond to them for those who “still like to follow trash around.” Experts agree this probably refers to Arminians in general.

“I hereby decree all Triabloguers are Satan incarnate,” Ben stated, adding only: “Respectfully, of course.”

When asked for comment, one Triablogger responded with: “Isn’t Ben the ice cream guy? I wasn’t even aware he had a website.”

In unrelated news, Judge Ben Kryin-Lotts checked into Mount Sinai Rehab Clinic today after reports that he kicked sand in the face of a four-year-old on a playground were backed up by video evidence taken from his own cell phone camera. Additionally, the eviction notice his mother placed on his basement room door was found to be legally binding, and the judge in that case also ruled that Ben’s Nintendo system does in fact belong to his brother after all.

One of Ben’s spokesmen said Ben had suffered a “nervous breakdown brought on by lack of intestinal fortitude” but a source in the hospital said, “Ben read through Paul Manata’s last post and short circuited a few synapses.” The source asked to remain anonymous since Ben had not given J.C. Thibodaux permission to speak in public after his disastrous performance at last night’s Grammy Awards ceremony, where Thibodaux appeared wearing a skimpy outfit and a placard that said, "Britney Was Framed!"