Hey there. Thanks for responding to my last comment, it was helpful. This is probably not the proper spot to ask questions, so question one, where should I ask questions? Question two is this: Is Hebrews 10:5 a misquoting of Psalm 40:6? One says a body, the other says ears. Pretty confusing for me. Question three is this: A hillsong leader has said that in the Greek, tongues can either mean a human language or heavenly language, but of this I am not so sure. Could you shed some light on that? (I googled it and found nothing to do with a heavenly language)
There are two excellent search boxes (which seem to respond differently, I think) -- in the top left hand corner of the blog (from the top of the page), and in the right hand column, under the "popular posts" and the subscribe boxes.
For what it's worth, here's what Norm Geisler has to say about the passage:
"The difficulty arises here from the fact that the writer of Hebrews cites a version of the Greek translation of the OT (the Septuagint), whereas Psalm 40 was originally written in Hebrew. However, this does not solve the difficulty for anyone who believes in the inspiration of the Bible, since once the NT cites a passage this guarantees its truthfulness. How, then, can this apparent misquotation be resolved?
The solution may lie in the fact that Hebrews is a loose rendition, and Psalms is a more literal translation of the same idea, namely "You have fitted me for obedient service." The Psalm phrase, "My ears you have opened," may be a figure of speech referring to the boring of a slave's ear to signify his willing submission to his master. In which case, Hebrews actually clarifies the meaning of this now obscure figure of speech by its more "loose" rendition.
Others claim this is a synecdoche, in which one part stands for the whole. That is to say, if God is to "dig out the ears" (so that the Messiah can obey God and become a sacrifice for sin), then He must "prepare a body" for Him in which He can enter the world and accomplish His divine mission (cf. Hebrews 10:5). Either way would satisfactorily resolve the difficulty and satisfy the principle that the NT citations need not be exact quotations as long as they are faithful to the truth contained in the OT text."
Question #2: Heb 10:5 is quoting the LXX version. It's probably a synecdoche, where the part ("ears") stands for the whole ("body"). As O'Brien explains in his commentary, "digging" or hollowing out the ears is part of making a body (using a creative potter/clay metaphor). The LXX is an interpretive paraphrase of the Hebrew.
Question #3: the Greek word for tongues doesn't mean heavenly languages. That would be a question of interpretation, not semantics. How Paul describes the phenomenon of glossolalia. Whether or not it refers to heavenly languages is a contextual issue.
Interesting! I'm googling, and it seems there's a multiple types of synecdoches in scripture. Could you give an example of a similar type of synecdoche (like the ear/body example) in the scripture?
There are many, many more resources readily available for those inclined to care for souls of course, but these three represent solid starting points for further investigation and equipping.
Hey there. Thanks for responding to my last comment, it was helpful.
ReplyDeleteThis is probably not the proper spot to ask questions, so question one, where should I ask questions?
Question two is this: Is Hebrews 10:5 a misquoting of Psalm 40:6? One says a body, the other says ears. Pretty confusing for me.
Question three is this: A hillsong leader has said that in the Greek, tongues can either mean a human language or heavenly language, but of this I am not so sure. Could you shed some light on that? (I googled it and found nothing to do with a heavenly language)
Heh, thanks.
There are two excellent search boxes (which seem to respond differently, I think) -- in the top left hand corner of the blog (from the top of the page), and in the right hand column, under the "popular posts" and the subscribe boxes.
DeleteHmm. I can't find any article/blogpost covering my Hebrews 10:5 question. Thanks for the advice though, decent search bar.
DeleteFor what it's worth, here's what Norm Geisler has to say about the passage:
Delete"The difficulty arises here from the fact that the writer of Hebrews cites a version of the Greek translation of the OT (the Septuagint), whereas Psalm 40 was originally written in Hebrew. However, this does not solve the difficulty for anyone who believes in the inspiration of the Bible, since once the NT cites a passage this guarantees its truthfulness. How, then, can this apparent misquotation be resolved?
The solution may lie in the fact that Hebrews is a loose rendition, and Psalms is a more literal translation of the same idea, namely "You have fitted me for obedient service." The Psalm phrase, "My ears you have opened," may be a figure of speech referring to the boring of a slave's ear to signify his willing submission to his master. In which case, Hebrews actually clarifies the meaning of this now obscure figure of speech by its more "loose" rendition.
Others claim this is a synecdoche, in which one part stands for the whole. That is to say, if God is to "dig out the ears" (so that the Messiah can obey God and become a sacrifice for sin), then He must "prepare a body" for Him in which He can enter the world and accomplish His divine mission (cf. Hebrews 10:5). Either way would satisfactorily resolve the difficulty and satisfy the principle that the NT citations need not be exact quotations as long as they are faithful to the truth contained in the OT text."
(Norm Geisler, When Critics Ask, p. 521)
Question #2: Heb 10:5 is quoting the LXX version. It's probably a synecdoche, where the part ("ears") stands for the whole ("body"). As O'Brien explains in his commentary, "digging" or hollowing out the ears is part of making a body (using a creative potter/clay metaphor). The LXX is an interpretive paraphrase of the Hebrew.
DeleteQuestion #3: the Greek word for tongues doesn't mean heavenly languages. That would be a question of interpretation, not semantics. How Paul describes the phenomenon of glossolalia. Whether or not it refers to heavenly languages is a contextual issue.
Interesting! I'm googling, and it seems there's a multiple types of synecdoches in scripture. Could you give an example of a similar type of synecdoche (like the ear/body example) in the scripture?
DeleteSome resources for Amy Simpson and her readership:
ReplyDeleteNANC
CCEF
Competent to Counsel
There are many, many more resources readily available for those inclined to care for souls of course, but these three represent solid starting points for further investigation and equipping.