I. Canonics
Jude’s quotation of 1 Enoch 1:9 is often touted as a problem for the Protestant canon. If, however, that’s a problem for the Protestant canon, then that’s also a problem for the Roman Catholic canon, the Eastern Orthodox canon, and most Oriental orthodox canons–except the anomalous case of the Ethiopian Orthodox canon.
Of course, Roman Catholics default to the Magisterium. That, however, is a makeshift solution that fails to address Jude’s use of 1 Enoch 1:9. Either Jude treats this passage as inspired Scripture or not. If not, then we don’t need the Magisterium to broker the issue; but if he does, then the Magisterium can’t very well overrule Jude.
II. The Text
I’m going to reproduce both passages. I’ll quote Jude in the ESV, and I’ll use the translation supplied by Nickelsburg in his commentary for the Enochic passage.
1 Enoch 1:1-2,9
The words of the blessing with which Enoch blessed the righteous chosen who will be present on the day of tribulation, to remove all the enemies; and the righteous will be saved. And he took up his discourse and said, Enoch, a righteous man whose eyes were opened by God, who had the vision of the Holy One and of heaven, which he showed me…Behold, he comes with the myriads of his holy ones, to execute judgment on all, and to destroy all the wicked, and to convict all flesh for all the wicked deeds that they have done, and the proud and hard words that wicked sinners spoke against him.
Jude 14-15
It was also about these that Enoch, the seventh from Adam, prophesied, saying, “Behold, the Lord comes with ten thousands of his holy ones, to execute judgment on all and to convict all the ungodly of all their deeds of ungodliness that they have committed in such an ungodly way, and of all the harsh things that ungodly sinners have spoken against him.”
III. The Crux
Jude’s use of 1 Enoch 1:9 raises at least two related issues:
i) Unless he regards the speaker as the historic Enoch, why does he ascribe the utterance to Enoch?
ii) Unless he regards 1 Enoch 1:9 as true, why does he quote it?
IV. The Enochic Ascription
From what I can gauge, the obvious reason that Jude, in quoting this passage, attributes the utterance to Enoch, is because that ascription is, itself, a part of the original quote. Jude is quoting from a book quoting “Enoch.”
1 Enoch 1:1 is a general superscription for chapters 1-5 (in our extant editions), followed by an introduction (1:2-3) which reaffirms the Enochic superscription. (For details, see Nickelsburg’s commentary.)
Jude introduces 1:9 by paraphrasing 1:1 and then incorporating that ascription into his quote. In effect, he’s quoting 1:1,9. He carries the ascription of 1:1 down into the quotation of 1:9–skipping over the intervening material.
But this does not imply that he himself attributes the utterance to Enoch. Rather, he’s quoting the citation that comes with the pericope (1:1-9). A summary quotation of 1:1,9 (or 1:1-2,9).
He quotes the superscription because the superscription was already a part of the primary text, and, what is more, a part of the text that introduces the oracle of judgment.
So it’s not as if he’s adding his own attribution, or vouching for the ascription. Rather, he’s quoting a quote. For 1 Enoch 1:1-2 explicitly quotes “Enoch” making the statement recorded in v9. Therefore, an accurate quote by a secondary source (Jude) will reproduce the superscription in the primary source–though not necessarily verbatim.
To take a comparison, suppose a pastor preaches a sermon series on Hebrews, using the KJV. He inaugurates the series by reading his sermon text: “The Epistle of Paul the Apostle to the Hebrews. God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets…”
Is the pastor attributing Hebrews to St. Paul? No. The pastor is quoting the KJV, which attributes this letter to St. Paul.
Of course, this doesn’t rule out the possibility that our pastor may agree with the citation. But we can’t infer that from the mere practice of quoting the superscription to introduce the sermon text.
V. The Enochic Background
A common problem with the way the issue is framed is that scholars tend to focus on the background of Jude 14-15 rather than the background of 1 Enoch 1:9. Once they have identified the source of Jude 14-15, that’s where they stop.
Yet, to a great extent, 1 Enoch 1:9 (indeed, the whole pericope) is, itself, a secondary source which has its primary source in OT scripture. Therefore, Jude isn’t simply quoting 1 Enoch 1:9. For by quoting 1 Enoch 1:9, he is indirectly quoting whatever OT passages 1 Enoch is alluding to. To the extent, which is considerable, that 1 Enoch 1:9 goes back to the OT scriptures, so does Jude 14-15. It’s the truth of the OT scriptures, appropriated by 1 Enoch 1:9, which underwrites the truth 1 Enoch 1:9.
As a couple of scholars have noted:
“The holy ones are the faithful angels of God, as in Dan 4 and Job 5:1; 15:15. This reference to God’s celestial band recalls Deut 33:2…Zech 14:5c envisions an advent of God along with his holy ones. It is possible that Ps 68:18[17] also speaks of God’s heavenly retinue within the context of theophany…Dan 7:10, a part of Daniel’s throne vision, also pictures God as surrounded by myriads of heavenly attendants as at the time of judgment,” J. VanderKam, “The Theophany of Enoch 1:3b-7, 9,” Vetus Testamentum 23.2 (1973): 148-50.
“That God comes with myriads of holy ones derives form Deut 33:2…The universality of this judgment, indicated already in [1 Enoch] 1:7, is emphasized here by the fourfold repetition of ‘all.’…the language here should be read in light of three related OT texts. The first is Genesis 6-9, which repeatedly speaks of the corruption of all flesh and of the judgment that falls on all flesh except for a very small remnant [Gen 6:12,13,17,19; 7:15,21; 8:17; 9:11,15,17]…Two other OT passages (Jer 25:30-32; Isa 66:15-16) may have influenced the wording of 1 Enoch 1:3c-5,9,” G. Nickelsburg, 1 Enoch 1 (Fortress Press 2001), 149.
VI. Audience Adaptation
Apropos (V), the substance of the passage, quoted by Jude, is thoroughly Scriptural. The only apocryphal element is the Enochic setting, but that’s embedded in the citational formula of the primary source which Jude is quoting. An incidental consequence of his requoting the terms of the original quotation.
We might still ask why Jude references this material in the first place. An obvious explanation is that he did it because this type of literature was venerated by his opponents, and so he’s turning it against them. A polemical, tu quoque technique which we find elsewhere in Scripture.
This isn't an issue for us. The Ethiopian Orthodox church is in communion with the other OO churches, and so it's not an issue for them, and if OO comes in communion with EO, their OT differences wouldn't matter.
ReplyDeleteJNORM888 SAID:
ReplyDelete"This isn't an issue for us. The Ethiopian Orthodox church is in communion with the other OO churches, and so it's not an issue for them, and if OO comes in communion with EO, their OT differences wouldn't matter."
So it's not an issue for you if the Orthodox canon either excludes a divinely inspired book or mistakenly includes an uninspired book. Who cares about the word of God as long as you've got your traditions, is that it?
I presume the same argument would apply to Jude 9's use of the assumption of Moses. But have you any idea of what the OT background is of that quote?
ReplyDeleteZech 3:1-2; Deut 34:6 (LXX).
ReplyDeleteSteve,
ReplyDeleteYou don't understand the Ancients, nor what they meant by the terms "Scripture", "Inspired", and "Canon".
The Ancient Church had mutiple canons in various regions. And full communion was not necessarily based on if one region had the exact same number of books in it's Scrolls and Codices as the other. This should tell you that the later protestant principle of "Sola Scriptura" was foriegn to them. Scripture is an aspect of Tradition, it is not separate from it. The protestant idea that the Church didn't form the canon is false. Apostolic Churches in various regions formed their own Canons for use in their Liturgies, and over the centuries various canons became more and more uniform.
In regards to the New Testament, the 27 book canon is only universal for us. The churches in the far East only had 22 books in their New Testament....as they probably still do today. And Ethiopia might have more books in her New Testament as well.....I have to double check to make sure.
And so Sola Scriptura was never really the principle of the Ancient churches.......nor could it be for it takes a 100% uniform canon in both the Old and New Testaments in order to assume it.
Sola Scriptura is a myth!
ICXC NIKA
My statement wasn't predicated on sola Scriptura. Pity you can't follow the argument.
ReplyDeleteMultiple canons? Again, that reflects the Orthodox indifference to the word of God.
Case in point: either 1 Enoch is the word of God or 1 Enoch is not the word of God.
It if is the word of God, that it should be deferred to as the word of God. If not, then not.
So you've proven my point that Orthodox believers are not in submission to the word of God. They just don't care.
Oh, and I understand by "Scripture" and "inspired" what the Bible understands by those terms. The word of God defines the word of God.
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