Friday, October 20, 2006

How To Read A Book

How To Read A Book:


(This is an outline of part of Mortimer J. Adler and Charles Van Doren’s excellent book, "How To Read A Book." The outline takes one up to the third level of reading - analytical reading. There is a fourth level, syntopical reading, but most of the T-blog readers, and your every day reader, does not read syntopically. Furthermore, mastering levels 1-3 will improve what you get out of your reading 10 fold. It is sufficient to make you a very proficient reader. Also, syntopical reading is for many books, analytical reading is for one book. So, technically, the title of this post implies an an analytic outline. A syntopical outline would be titled, “How To Read Books.” For these reasons I have only focused on levels 1-3. I hope the below outline will provide you with some practical knowledge of how to read well, not necessarily be well read. Also, as a companion to the below, readers are encouragned to read this short article. I also would obviously recommend purchasing Adler and Van Doren's book, "How To Read A Book," for your own library.)

I. Be a demanding reader. Reading, if you’re going to learn anything or gain enlightenment, must be active. The more active the reader is, the better.

A. You can be active by paying attention and focusing.

B. By taking notes, highlighting key points and arguments, asking questions of the author, etc.

C. Following rules for reading and making the following of these rules habitual.

D. The demanding reader should be asking these 4 questions of the book:

1. What is the book about as a whole? This should be stated succinctly.

2. What is being said in detail and how? You should know the main assertions and arguments which constitute the author’s message

3. Is the book true in whole or in part? Once you have understood the book you are obligated to make a judgment regarding it. Make up your own mind.

4. What of it? (4) is asking things like:

(a) How should I then live in light of what I’ve learned?

(b) What should I do with this knowledge?

II. The first level of reading is the reading at the basic, or elementary school, level.

III. The second level of reading is called “inspectional reading.” This comes in two parts:

A. Systematic skimming or pre-reading.

1. This is achieved by: reading the title, table of contents, preface, editors note, introduction, back flap, etc.

2. Reading the index to see the major themes, topics, ideas, and terms the author will be discussing.

3. Reading through the book by reading the first couple of pages or so, the last couple of pages or so, and then flipping through the book, dipping in here and there.

B. Superficial reading is the second part of inspectional reading. To achieve this you must read through the entire book at a fast pace and without stopping to think about terms you’re unfamiliar with, ideas you don’t immediately grasp, and points which are footnoted for further inspection. Doing both (A) and (B) will prepare you to read the book through for the second time; the analytical stage.

IV. The third stage of reading is called “analytical reading.” There are three stages, made up of various rules, of analytical reading.

A. Stage one: Rules for finding out what the book is about.

1. Classify the book according to kind and subject matter. This is also referred to as pigeonholing a book.

(a) Is it a poem, play, epic, work of philosophy or theology, history, science, etc.

(b) Is it theoretical or practical.

(i) A theoretical book reports facts, offers detached arguments, or offers insight or understanding of a position. These books teach you that something is the case.

(ii) A practical book tells you how to live, or how to do something. These books teach you how to do something.

(iii) As an aside, these two cannot be sharply separated. As John Frame points out in The Doctrine of God, facts and application of the facts go hand in hand. When I learn the 6th commandment I know how to apply it. But as I apply it to more diverse areas of life, I learn more about the 6th commandment.

2. Succinctly state what the book is about. That is, find the main theme or point of the book. You should be able to state this in a sentence, paragraph at most. This is different than (IV.A.1) in that here we are asking what the book is about, not what kind of book it is.

3. Outline the book. See this outline for an instantiation of this rule. Basically, you want to get at the bones of the book. The basic structure. The construction of the major themes and arguments. How the book proceeds. The skeleton.

4. Define the problem(s) the author has tried to solve. To see the unity of a book you need to know why it has the unity it has (supposing it’s a good book and it has a unity!). To know why it has the unity it has you should know the authors main problem(s) he’s trying to answer; as well as subordinate questions and answers.

B. Stage two: Rules for interpreting the book’s content.

5. Coming to terms with the author.

(a) A term is not a word. A term is the meaning of a word. Water and agua are two different words, they mean the same thing though.

(b) To know the authors terms, then, is to understand the meaning of his argument or explanation, etc.

(c) Find the important words and through them come to terms with the author.

(d) The words he uses in an important way, or the ones you have trouble understanding, are probably the important terms you need to know.

(e) Read all the words in context to find the meaning of the terms; how the author means them, that is.

6. Grasp the leading propositions by finding the key sentences.

(a) Propositions are the meanings of sentences.

(b) You find the leading propositions by finding the key sentences.

(c) You find the key sentences myriad ways:

(i) The author marks them out for you in some way.

(ii) These are the sentences that give you the most trouble.

(iii) The sentences express judgments, I.e., they are not questions or exclamations!

(iv) These are his reasons for affirming or denying the main problem(s) he has set out to answer.

7. Find the author’s argument by finding them in the key sequences of sentences.

(a) Sting together the important propositions into an ordered structure.

(b) An argument must involve more than one statement.

(c) An argument might be an inductive or deductive one.

(d) Observe what the author says he must prove and what he must assume.

8. Find which problem(s) the author solved and which one’s he did not. If he did not, find out if he knows that he did not.

(a) Did the author solve the problem(s) he set out to solve?

(b) Did he raise new ones in the process?

(c) Did the author admit or know that he failed to solve some of the problem(s)?

(d) If you know the solutions to the problem/s you can be confident that you understand the book.

C. Stage three: Rules for criticizing a book as a communication of knowledge. You are required to criticize the book you read. You owe the author that. Criticize, or offering a judgment, does not necessarily mean that you disagree with the author. You can offer the judgment that you agree with him, you have learned something, and he has answered what he set out to. If you disagree, which is your right, be sure you have completed the above steps. You cannot critique that which you do not understand.

9. General maxims for intellectual etiquette.

(a) Do not begin criticism until you have completed your outline and interpretation of the book.

(b) Do not agree disputatiously or contentiously.

(c) Demonstrate you understand the difference between knowledge and mere opinion by giving reasons for your judgments (criticisms).

10. Special criteria for points of criticism.

(a) Show where the author is uninformed. This is where he lacks some piece of knowledge that is relevant to the problem(s) he was trying to solve.

(b) Show where the author is misinformed. This is when the author asserts what is not the case.

(c) Show where the author is illogical. Here the author’s reasoning is faulty. He has either made a non sequitur or was inconsistent.

(d) Show where the author’s analysis, argument, or solution to problem(s) is incomplete. This is to say the author did not solve all the problems he started out to solve or did not make good use of the material at his disposal, that he failed to take into account all the ramifications, or made distinctions relevant to his undertaking.


The above outline provides the rules and strategies required for reading well. Many folks are well read, not many read well. Thomas Hobbes once said, “If I read as many books as most men do, I would be as dull-witted as they are.”

Thursday, October 19, 2006

Time & eternity

DAGOODS SAID:

“Perhaps in any other discussion, we can reduce ‘cause’ to focus on necessity, but in reviewing “cause” when it comes to creating Time, it is a key issue. It should not be defined away. What appears is that the timing significance of causation of Time is a problem, so rather than address it; this approach re-defines ‘cause’ to remove any consideration of time, and now claims the problem is addressed. No, what appears is that the problem was just ignored. (Again, this is my opinion, and I am saying this so that you can see where I am coming from.)”

You are making temporal priority a necessary condition of causation.

I countered that assumption by citing the definition of David Lewis. In a discussion like this we need to define our terms.

This is not a case of my ignoring the problem or defining it away. To say so begs the question in your favor. It assumes that there is a problem to solve. It tacitly (or explicitly) assumes your definition of causation.

The definition I offered is not a definition I concocted on the spot to evade your question.

David Lewis was one of the top philosophers of his generation. A leading logician and metaphysician.

He was also, I believe, a secularist.

I responded to the question by citing a preexisting definition of causation which is one of the standard definitions of causation, and applied it to the case at hand.

The fact that it proves useful in addressing an objection to the Christian faith is no doubt convenient for me, but it’s adventitious convenience and utility is independent of Christian theism.

It strikes me as a reasonable definition. I know of no better one.

“We have the simple statement ‘A causes B.’”

Who is the “we”? Are you speaking for yourself, or for me? The definition I supplied you wasn’t that simple.

“A brute fact of the universe is that things exist.”

Is that a “brute” fact?

“With the exception of God, they come into existence. Even looking solely at necessity, the reality is that A existed before B, or A came into existence simultaneously as B, or A came into existence after B.”

This is equivocal. There is temporal priority or simultaneity between one mundane event and another, but not between God and the world.

The sequence is internal to the world, not external to the relation between God and the world.

“What I am wondering is, in light of the reality of existence, even with using necessity as the basis of causation, don’t we have to still confront the problem of how this actually works in a universe where there is Time?”

This, again, is equivocal. How things work “given” the universe? Or in the “giving” in the universe?

“I am uncertain as to how A could cause B, and then subsequently come into existence. The definition of ‘necessity’ would allow it, of course, but is that ever a reality? I can’t think of such an instance, so I will move on.”

You’re confusing the definition of causation with an incidental mode of causation.

The definition I gave you doesn’t explain the circulation of blood. The cause is supplied by a beating heart.

But a beating doesn’t figure in a definition of causality. A definition necessarily operates at a higher level of abstraction.

A definition needs to be as general as possible. To be consistent with the various concrete particulars which are covered by the definition.

But a definition doesn’t pick out any particular instance—with all its attendant circumstances.

“A could cause B and come into existence at the same time (Craig’s pillow example), but you have indicated that Time has a point of origin, so if it was simultaneous, that would mean God has a point of origin.”

What was simultaneous with what? There was no time apart from God’s creative fiat. But the cause (divine fiat) is not simultaneous with the effect, or prior to the effect. The sequence is progressive, not retrogressive.

You might as well say that if I’m $50 overdrawn at the bank, this means that I still have $50 in my account, only they are negative dollars, and that if I withdraw my $50 dollars from my account, the teller will hand me 5 crisp, negative $10 bills.

“Leaving us with A (God) existing prior to the caused event B (Time).”

No, not at all.

“But you say that God did not exist prior to time.”

True.

“Which leaves me back: confused. I do not want to start guessing your position—can you provide more clarification?”

Since I don’t know the source of your confusion, it’s hard to clarify.

To say that God “did” not exist “prior to time” is not to say that God “did” not exist. Rather, it’s merely to say there was never a time when God “did” not exist since God is a timeless agent who subsists outside of time.

We used tensed language (past, present, future) to express this idea since our language is indexed to temporal relations.

“As to the differences between supernatural modes (I said “planes”—I think we are talking of the same thing) are you saying that God has neither time nor space in the spiritual mode, and created creatures have time, but no space?”

My statement was more qualified than that.

1.God has no spatiotemporal attributes, but he has the attribute of spirituality (i.e. mentality).

2.Some creatures, like angels or discarnate souls, have temporal attributes as well as their spiritual attribute, but no spatial attributes.

3.Other creatures, like living human beings, have temporal, spiritual, and spatial attributes.

4.Inanimate creatures, and possibly lower animals, have spatiotemporal attributes, but no spiritual attribute.

I allow for the possibility that some higher animals have a soul.

“First you state we would not use empirical (observational) evidence for a non-empirical object. I agree.”

No, that is not what I said. My statement was far more qualified: “We wouldn’t necessarily expect empirical evidence for a nonempirical objects.”

Continuing with Dagood:

“ We cannot use sight, taste, touch, hearing or smell for something that is invisible, inaudible, untouchable, and has no taste or smell.”

Not directly.

“But then you indicate that a non-empirical object can have a physical manifestation.”

In at least some cases.

“I think you are talking about such things as the numeral “2” which is a concept, but in and of itself is not observable. We manifest it by creating a set of lines, and a set of conventions, so that you and I can discuss, and when I place a “2” on the paper, you understand the idea. Am I close?”

1.A “numeral” is not a concept. A numeral is a concrete representation of a number.

2.A number is a concept, but I’d distinguish between God’s timeless, constitutive idea of numbers (which function as abstract objects) and our finite, derivative concept of numbers.

3.Numbers are also exemplified in the physical world.

“However, here we have a mode that has no time, no space, and a non-empirical object (God.)”

True.

“The question that plagues me, is how does this no time, no space, non-empirical item translate over to a new mode, in which there IS time, and IS space, and ARE empirical objects?”

Space and time are limits. They exemplify the actual infinite (more than one, to be precise). Time and space are finite modes of subsistence.

“Further, it would seem that you are claiming it created Time, but not space, on its own mode.”

God created both time and space.

“How does such a thing (for lack of a better term) manage to create something so completely opposite of its own existence?”

I don’t know, but so what?

You’re assuming that causes resemble their effects. But since causes are often quite dissimilar to their effects, you can’t tell me how unlike the two cmust be before they are too dissimilar to enter into causal relations. So you and I are in the same boat.

“Further, you indicated that the Bible produces evidence of the incorporeal realm. (Another term for spiritual mode, I presume?) However, in those instances, there ARE concepts of Time and Space.”

That all depends on the particular examples.

“Within Creation we have the Godhead talking to each other. Which requires both time and space. Certainly you could argue this is an anthropomorphism, and there was no actual talking. No actual time taking place.”

Actually, I’d construe that as a case of God addressing the heavenly court. But it’s still a bit anthropomorphic.

“But what about angel’s interaction in the incorporeal realm. What of Satan’s fall? This, too, would take time and space. Or Satan appearing before God about Job.”

Angelic activity in the spiritual realm would take place in time, but not in space.

“Or the author of Isaiah’s vision of a throne. Or Stephen’s vision of Jesus. Or the author of Revelation’s numerous accountings of events happening in the incorporable realm. Every one of these events are placed within a circumstance of time and space. People talking, moving, causing and effecting. (He He. Just threw that in.)”

Visionary revelation is like a dream, only it’s a directed dream or collective dream. Indeed, dreaming is one modality of visionary revelation, while a dreamlike trance is a waking version of the same.

A vision, like a dream, simulates space. But the objects which appear to us in dreams do not occupy actual space. They are immaterial objects.

The difference is that ordinary dreams are the creative product of the dreamer’s imagination.

But in the case of visionary revelation, God is producing the imagery. And the imagery may correspond to real agents, albeit spiritual agents—although some of the details in a divine vision like, say, Zechariah’s, are just window-dressing.

“If we are to use the Bible as evidence, it would describe a spiritual mode unlike what you have indicated exists. Is the Bible inaccurate?”

You’re failing to distinguish between the representation and what it represents.

“If we say that these are humans limited in their ability to describe the indescribable, then what evidence is it?”

I wouldn’t say it’s indescribable. Spirituality and eternity admit literal definitions. “Spirit” is a synonym for “mind.” And we can also have a literal idea of a timeless object.

However, it’s also possible to give what is naturally or essentially insensible a simulated, sensory manifestation. That’s a means of symbolizing spiritual truths.

We do this all the time. I have an idea. But you can’t perceive my bare idea. So I objectify my idea in time and space. I put it on paper, or a canvass.

“Bringing us back to the top of the circle, that the idea of a spiritual realm, and its impact on a physical realm appears (to naturalists) to be assertions, and un-provable hypotheticals that only introduce further problems.”

Have you ever bothered to study the standard literature in defense of dualism? Quite a lot is available on the Internet.

“’Justice’ means to follow a law.”

It does? I would put it the other way around. The law should follow justice. Justice is the abstract universal, of which the law is, at best, a specific, concrete example.

According to your definition, there could never be an unjust law.

For me, justice is prior to law, not vice versa.

“’Mercy’ means deliberately withholding enforcement. In other words, Mercy means to NOT be Just. If Justice demands you pay a fine of $100, and a Judge rules you pay $50—you have received mercy. Not Justice.”

True.

“With Justice, there is no such imposition. By indicating that God can be both Just and Merciful, God has no restriction.”

No external restriction. But there is, in a sense, an internal restriction.

“That is why I was questioning on any real value in discussing ‘just’ about God. We have no verification of any standard by which God is limited.”

That may depend on how you define “verification.” If you say the law supplies the standard of justice, then that’s an arbitrary standard.

“And even if we could, God can, apparently, refuse to abide by that standard.”

For a one-time Christian, you should have a better grasp of theology—but maybe that’s why you’re a one-time Christian.

God’s mercy doesn’t come at the expense of his justice. Ever heard of penal substitution?

“If the very reason for Suffering, is for us to understand what it means for God to be Just, and God to be Merciful, don’t we need to know the standard by which those words, as we know them, are being applied?”

I’m not the one who’s casting my theodicy in terms of suffering. My theodicy covers pain and suffering, but suffering, per se, is not a means to a higher end.

1.To begin with, I don’t believe that all pain and suffering is a result of the Fall. I think it’s quite possible that unfallen Adam could stub his toe.

2.More to the point, pain and suffering are a secondary consequence of sin and evil. Sin and evil supply the primary means of reaching the second-order goods of God’s manifested mercy or justice insofar as they supply the objects on which his mercy or justice are visited.

“Are you resolving the problem of Suffering with “the ends justify the means”?”

In a qualified sense. The end doesn’t justify any means whatsoever, but some ends justify some means pursuant an otherwise unobtainable good, and so long as no divine injustice is done along the way.

“Is this the Unknown Greater Purpose defense?”

It’s a greater good defense, but hardly an “unknown” greater good defense inasmuch as I’ve repeatedly identified the greater good in question, viz. an existential knowledge of God’s justice, mercy, and redemptive wisdom.

Wednesday, October 18, 2006

There's more to reality than meets the eye

Dagood said:

“Steve,__A couple of questions and a couple of observations, if you could clarify:__Did God exist prior to time?”

Strictly speaking, no.

“As near as I can tell (and I could always be missing something) your definition of necessity within causation does not address the problem. “

What problem? If the definition is correct, then primary causality doesn’t presuppose temporal priority, in which case there’s no problem at all.

“Even if Time could not exist without God (and therefore God is the “cause” of Time) we are left with the problem that at one moment there was God and no Time, and the next, there was God and Time. Yet without Time, it is impossible to get from one moment to the next!”

The precise way of expressing the relation would be to say that while time had a point of origin, there was never a time when God did not exist since God is timeless.

“Can you explain the relationship between the spiritual plane (for lack of a better term) and the physical plane? Can one cross-over from one to the next? What is on the physical plane that is not on the spiritual plane and vice versa?”

In terms of the divine mode of spirituality, time and space are absent.

In terms of the mundane (=creaturely) mode of spirituality, space is absent.

There is no literal passage from spirit to matter since literal passage is a spatial category.

Ordinarily, an embodied agent is only directly aware of his physical surroundings because his consciousness is bombarded by the senses.

But in the case of a discarnate agent or in certain altered states of consciousness, the agent can be directly aware of spiritual entities.

“And without empirical evidence, is there any way, really to make any claims as to what is on the spiritual plane?”

1.We wouldn’t necessarily expect empirical evidence for a nonempirical objecst, although it’s possible for a nonempirical object to have a physical manifestation.

2.We don’t demand empirical evidence for the existence of consciousness or abstract objects like numbers.

3.Evidence for the incorporeal would include the usual arguments for abstract objects, the irreducibility of consciousness, the ontological status of qualia, and well-attested case-studies of possession or postmortem survival.

The Bible also furnishes abundant evidence of the incorporeal realm.

“Perhaps two examples, to clarify my question. On the physical plane, we require light to use our optic nerves to observe. If we ‘observe’ other items on the spiritual plane, will that require a source of light? And a participant with optic nerves? As James Lazarus points out, God is indicated to be a spirit—an entity without an eyeball. Does God ‘see’ differently than humans? If so, and we cannot observe how God sees, is any claim as to what God is doing, when God is watching something pure speculation?”

1.God doesn’t literally “observe” what is going on. Rather, God knows what is going on because he foreordained whatever comes to pass.

2.Spiritual apprehension would be like dreaming. A dream simulates sensory stimuli, even though no external stimulus is causing the effect.

“Another example. On our physical plane, we understand “justice” as being in conformance with a standard. A standard that is external to our point of view. Saying ‘I will do whatever my character allows me to do’ is not justice. If ‘God is Just’ is to have any meaning on our plane, it would mean that God is following a standard that is external to His point of view. But that would make something greater (and more necessary) than God. If God is simply following his character, he is not being ‘just’ as we understand it on this physical plane. If there is some other definition of “just” on the spiritual plane, how can we confirm what it is?”

You’re rehearsing the Euthyphro dilemma. I’ve been over that ground with Loftus.

“Can there be more than one plane? What limits us to supernatural and natural? Can there also be supranatural? And quasi-natural?”

Since you don’t even believe in the supernatural, much less the supranatural, the onus is not on me to disprove something that you yourself disbelieve.

“How do we correctly determine the number of planes?”

It’s sufficient that I have a good reason to believe in one thing, but no good reason to believe in another.

I don’t need a reason not to believe in something. Rather, I simply need a reason to believe in something. Absent evidence for a hypothetical, I’m under no obligation to disprove a hypothetical.

“What if there is another plane behind God’s plane?”

That would be excluded by certain monotheistic proofs—not to mention the Bible.

“I do not ask this for some sort of eternal regression, but rather to demonstrate that—as humans—the ONLY plane we can observe is the physical one. To introduce another brings up the question as to why stop at one.”

While humans can only “observe” a physical domain, they can experience a nonphysical domain.

“Further, I am uncertain as to how you “value” God. You first indicate that in our review of the theist’s position, we must consider God as the most valuable. But then you state God is the highest ‘good.’ The word “good” (as I understand it) is a value determination made, in comparison to other objects. How we get the terms ‘good,’ ‘better’ and ‘best.’ It is unclear if you are talking about morality when you use the word ‘good.’ Are there different values of morality? Some ‘good’ some ‘better’ and some ‘best’?”

There are lesser and greater goods. A paradigm-case would be the exemplary goodness of God, which mundane goods exemplify.

“And if God is the highest value of ‘good’ (can I say ‘best’?) then you seem to be saying that suffering (as a ‘second order’) is still a value of ‘good,’ Are you saying suffering is good? Just not as ‘good’ as God, who is the “best”?”

No, I never said that suffering is good. Rather, suffering can be a means to the realization of a second-order good. Suffering is a means, not an end. The end in view is the good, while suffering can sometimes be instrumental to that end.

“Are you saying that we need suffering to understand the value of God?”

I was more specific than that:

i) A knowledge of certain first-order goods does not entail suffering. But a knowledge of certain second-order goods does entail suffering.

ii) I also distinguished between a greater good for a lesser number, and a lesser good for a greater number.

Not everyone is a beneficiary of the greater good, viz. the damned.

Consolations

Jim Lazarus and I are having a discussion over a couple of objections to Christian theism.

Here is his reply to me:

http://consolatione.blogspot.com/2006/10/partial-response-to-steven-hays.html

I’ll confine myself to what I regard as the most important elements of his reply:

“Put in other way, the answer to the problem of suffering must accord with our ethical intuitions…I want to tie it in, however, with the earlier discussion about a sensible theodicy having to be in accord with our ethical intuitions.”

Several issues:

1.Let’s remember that the problem of evil is, at best, an indirect argument for the nonexistence of God.

The veracity of most existential propositions (i.e. factual claims) is irrespective of their moral consequences.

Stalin was evil, but he was a real person.

2.So we could have many lines of evidence for the existence of God. Even if we had no answer to the problem of evil, our ethical intuitions are not prescriptive for what is possible or actual.

3.So the atheological problem of evil is more complicated than that. It takes the form of a dilemma. Ultimately, it’s an internal critique.

4. I don’t know anything about Jim’s background, but he’s obviously a student of philosophy.

I agree with him that intuition can be a valid starting point. However, our intuitions must be scrutinized. Even if we begin with intuition, we don’t necessarily end there.

Some of our intuitions are culturally conditioned. Some of our intuitions are one-sided.

The plausibility of a moral intuition largely depends on the particular illustration.

Many moral intuitions are plausible only because they overlook certain counterexamples which are equally plausible.

As a student of philosophy, whether formally or informally, Jim is aware of the fact that ethics is one area in which we are often confronted with conflicting intuitions.

Victor Reppert recently came up with an illustration of what I mean:

***QUOTE***

God may have broadly similar obligations that humans have, but at the same time be in a different situation with respect to his knowledge of the consequences of what he does. If I am a doctor and a sick child is brought to me, I have an obligation to do what I can to get her better. However, if I had the knowledge of God, I might be in a position to conclude that I am morally obligated to let her die, because the consequences of making her well would be that her grandson would grow up to start a nuclear war and incinerate the human race. The ordinary human doctor and the doctor with God-like knowledge would be working from the same moral standard, but the doctor with the God-like knowledge would perform an act that looked bad but really saved the human race from incineration.

http://dangerousidea.blogspot.com/2006/10/replies-to-comments-on-problem-of-evil.html

***END-QUOTE***

The unspoken assumption of Jim’s appeal to moral intuition is that if God had a good reason for allowing evil (or, as I’d put it, foreordaining the fall), then we would be privy to this purpose.

But is that a reasonable expectation? What is the supporting argument for that expectation?

Now, I happen to think that we can present a positive theodicy. But I’m also discussing the weaker thesis—as it relates to his above-stated objection.

Continuing:

***QUOTE***

Problem #1: Applications of Justice and Mercy

What are we saying when we say that God is just and merciful? Since justice and mercy can only apply as responses to the actions carried out by living beings, we must be referring to God's responses to the actions of people, and we are saying that his responses are always just and always merciful.

A problem then, is how suffering caused by natural evils can fit within the scope of this theodicy. We gain experiential knowledge of God's justice and mercy by his responses to our good and evil actions. However, natural disasters are not human good or evil actions. Their source is the natural environment, and not human volition.

At the same time, Hays might respond back that the occurrence of natural disasters is due to the Fall. However, Hays has already told us that the Fall was foreordained by God for the purposes of our discovering his just and merciful nature. Since we gain knowledge of this sort by his responses to us, and since it is hard to conceive how natural disasters could give us any experiential knowledge of God's justice and mercy (again, these are things that it seems we can recognize only by the way that God responds to our personal and/or collective actions or conduct), then it seems to follow that there is still evil in the world that remains unaccounted for given this theodicy. This is the case because God would seemingly have no reason to set up the Fall in such a way that it results in natural disasters. Since it does not seem to lead to discoveries about God's nature (our discoveries occurring in another way), God would not have brought it about that such things could happen.

***END-QUOTE***

Several issues here:

1.I don’t regard natural disasters as natural evils, per se. They are only evil in relation to the victim.

Natural disasters are actually natural goods inasmuch as they are various ways in which the ecosystem restores a natural imbalance. Natural disasters are not disastrous for the ecosystem. Not over the long haul.

Now, if I happen to be a victim of a natural disaster, then it’s evil to me. But that’s a relative evil rather than an absolute evil. I just happen to be in the wrong place at the wrong time.

The primary function of natural disaster is not punitive in character. Although death by natural disaster may be an evil, it is generally an incidental consequence of a natural good.

Fire warms and fire burns. Too little or too much water is destructive, but the absence of water is also destructive.

2.Apropos (1), I also don’t assume that all natural disasters represent the judgment for God for the sin of any particular victim.

3.However, I do believe that, as a result of the fall, human beings are liable to natural disasters.

Although death by natural disaster does not necessarily, or even ordinarily, represent a one-to-one correspondence between the event and the sin of the victim, yet the fact that most victims are sinners (in the sense of actual sin) does remove an immunity to death by natural disaster to which they would otherwise be exempt in an unfallen world.

4.I’d add that even if we treat children as innocent, the parent is a sinner. And in cases where the event is punitive, the child cannot be altogether isolated from the actions of the parent.

To take a human example, if a parent commits murder, we can’t acquit the parent of murder for the sake of his dependents, even though they will suffer when justice is exacted upon the parent.

***QUOTE***

Problem #2: The Fall

Secondly, the sensibility of Hays's theodicy seems to depend on how he interprets the Fall. Does Hays view the Fall as a literal event as depicted in Genesis? If so, then historical research suggests to us that the Fall never occurred. If the Fall never occurred, then this is a problem that Hay's theodicy must overcome.

Hays may respond back, as some other Reformed theologians have done, and say that we can disregard historical research because these historians do not operate under the presumption that Christianity is true. However, it seems to me that this response is seriously inadequate. Unbiased historical research strongly suggests that a literal Fall and subsequent events found in a literal interpretation of Genesis did not occur. We're faced with the option that either we throw out history as a research enterprise, or we have to come up with an alternative understanding of the Fall in Genesis.

***END-QUOTE***

1.I assume that Jim is alluding to evolution. That is a separate dispute. There are many highly credentialed men and women in the field of science, mathematics, and philosophy who regard evolutionary theory as a blind alley.

2.I also don’t know what he means by “unbiased” historical research. No one is more biased than the likes of Dennett, Dawkins, or Lewontin—to name a few.

Calvinist Jihad!

Proof that Calvinists are worse than Muslims.

Tuesday, October 17, 2006

Lazarus, come forth!

James Lazarus has posted the following remarks at his blog:

***QUOTE***

Some More Plausible Atheistic Arguments.

I was asked by one anonymous reviewer of this blog and by a friend of mine to discuss some atheistic arguments that I regard as persuasive. The three that I've been thinking about most often lately are discussed below.

(1) A Problem of Causal Efficacy

The first problem that I have arises from the nature of God and his relation to the world. God is a spiritual being - i.e he does not have physical properties, but properties of a wholly different sort, in a different ontological category than the space-time universe. At the same time, God, as our Creator, is responsible for our existence. The question then, is how a spiritual being, who is of a wholly different nature from the physical, can possibly interact with the physical and have causal efficacy for physical states of affairs. It is hard to imagine how this could work. In fact, I believe that there is a similar objection against substance dualism in the philosophy of mind. I am not aware of any responses to this objection. I would like to find some.

(2) God, Time, and Creation

Likewise, there is the familiar objection that causation is a notion that presupposes time. Without time, there is no causation. Time, however, begins with the Big Bang. How, then, could a creative act have occurred prior to the Big Bang, causing it to happen? If this is a troubling question, then it suggests to us that the notion of divine creation is impossible.

There are two possible objections to this. The first is that time does not begin with the Big Bang. Instead, we can imagine some sort of multiverse where causation can still occur. However, many believers do not wish to accept multiverse models. They believe that these models make theistic hypotheses superfluous. I'm not so sure that this is true. Robin Collins, for instance, has done some work on how theism could be compatible with the notion of a multiverse.

Secondly, William Lane Craig suggests the idea of simultaneous causation. To illustrate this, think of when you go to sleep at night, and your head hits the pillow, and the pillow sinks in to accomodate the shape of your head. The action of your head hitting the pillow causes the pillow to sink in, and yet the sinking of the pillow occurs simultaneously with its cause. It's an attempted demonstration of how effects do not necessarily occur after their causes. They can occur at the same time as the causes.

What Craig wants to suggest is that this can work with divine creation, also. God created time at the exact moment that time began. If this suggestion makes sense, then there wouldn't be much of a problem with the notion of divine creation.

Now, while Craig's simultaneous causation idea works perfectly fine within time, it is much less clear that this could work with the notion of time itself. With the pillow example, time remains a precondition for the cause to happen simultaneously with the effect. However, when it comes to the creation of our universe, there is no such precondition. God's creative act of time requires time, so certainly it seems we have to adopt some sort of model like the one that Craig is suggesting. Yet, if time begins simultaneously with the creative act, then it is hard to say how there is a causal connection between the act and the beginning of time, since creative acts do seem to depend upon time as a precondition.

http://philosophicalperspectives.blogspot.com/2006/10/some-more-plausible-atheistic.html

http://consolatione.blogspot.com/

***END-QUOTE***

I’ve bundled the first two objections because they admit a common solution.

His first objection posits a temporal precondition, while his second objection posits a spatial precondition.

But whether either or both objections are cogent depends on your theory of causality. As one writer explains, “until quite recently, it was almost universally held that causation must be deterministic, in that any cause is sufficient to bring about its effect,” P. Humphreys, “Causation,” A Companion to The Philosophy of Science, W. H. Newton-Smith, ed (Blackwell 2001), 33.

He goes on to explain that this model of causality has fallen into disfavor on account of two subsequent considerations:

i) Quantum indeterminism and:

ii) Overdetermination.

One modern alternative consists in sine qua non theories of causation, based on necessity rather than sufficiency. He then cites the version of David Lewis:

“Event A caused event B if and only if (1) A occurred; (2) B occurred; (3) the counterfactual ‘If A had not occurred, then B would not have occurred’ is true (or can be asserted,” ibid. 35.

Cf. D. Lewis, Philosophical Papers (Oxford 1983), 2:159-213.

Actually, it isn’t necessary to use the word “occur” to formulate a sine qua non theory. We could just as well say that A causes B just in case A and B both exist and B would not exist unless A did not existed.

Notice that this minimal definition of causality does not assume either temporal priority or spatial contiguity.

I think this model successfully captures the essential, preanalytic intuition involved in cause/effect relations without positing any additional (spatiotemporal) conditions beyond what is strictly necesary to spell out the relation.

Assuming that this is an adequate definition, it disposes of both objections at one stroke.

Moving to the final objection:

***QUOTE***

(3) The Problem of Suffering

I won't spend much time talking about the problem of suffering, because there's already a ridiculous amount of literature on the subject. Suffice to say that I have not heard any plausible solutions or counter-arguments to evidential problems of suffering. So, to me, it remains a strong objection to theism that believers have not yet overcome.

***END-QUOTE***

We could say quite a lot by way of answer, but let’s outline an answer:

1) What would count as a “plausible” solution or counterargument?

i) Suppose there is a true answer to the problem of evil, but it’s not the answer we were expecting, or an answer we especially like.

In reading the secular literature on the problem of evil, these two issues are not distinguished.

Normally, the atheist or agnostic will simply assume that any true answer must be to his liking.

But it should be obvious that a true answer and a likable answer are two very different things.

Indeed, evil is, itself, a truth of life which we don’t like very much.

ii) Apropos i), there’s a certain paradox in an unbeliever asking for a “plausible” solution.

For, in the nature of the case, any theodicy will invoke a theological value-system. By definition, a theodicy is a theological exercise. As such, it presupposes a theological frame of reference.

So, at one level, no theodicy will be plausible to an unbeliever as long as secularism supplies his standard of comparison. But, of course, that would beg the question.

So, at the very least, the atheist or agnostic, if he’s sincerely posing a question to the Christian regarding the problem of evil, must exercise a degree of sympathetic detachment.

2) Apropos (1), a theological value-system will take God as the most valuable object, as well as the source and standard of mundane values.

God will be the most valuable object in two respects:

i) At a metaphysical or absolute level: of what he is, in and of himself.

His intrinsic value.

ii) At an epistemic or relative level: of what he is to another or others.

His extrinsic value.

How he’s valued by others. Or how he ought to be valued by others.

According to (ii), knowing God is the highest good because, according to (i), God is the highest good.

3) Apropos (2), we need to distinguish between first-order goods and second-order goods. Second-order goods supervene on first-order goods.

As such, first-order goods are a necessary condition of second-order goods.

They are not at absolute necessity. It is not necessary that there be second-order goods. For that matter, it is not necessary that there be first-order goods.

But assuming the existence or value of second-order goods, then their corresponding first-order goods are a necessary precondition of the latter.

4) Apropos (3), we also need to distinguish between incompossible and/or incommensurable goods. Between a greater good for a lesser number, and a lesser good for a greater number.

5) Apropos (4), if knowing God is the highest good, and if a fuller knowledge of God is unobtainable apart from the internal relation between first-order goods and second-order goods, then second-order goods are justified by a higher end (the value of second-order goods), of which first-order goods are the prerequisite.

6) Apropos (5), a fuller knowledge of God includes a knowledge of his justice and mercy, as well as his wisdom in the way whereby his justice and mercy are revealed.

7) Apropos (6), although an abstract knowledge of divine justice and mercy is obtainable apart from concrete expressions of divine justice and mercy, yet an existential knowledge of his justice and mercy is not obtainable apart from concrete expressions of justice and mercy.

8) But an existential knowledge of the good is superior to an abstract knowledge of the good. Superior because such a personalized knowledge is of more value to the individual recipient or beneficiary.

9) Apropos (1-9), God foreordained the Fall as a means of manifesting his justice and mercy to the elect.

10) Such a solution to the problem of evil is the implicit theodicy of Scripture in such passages as Jn 9-12 and Rom 9-11.

Van Til v. Muhammad

Late last April, John Johnson kindly sent John Frame and me a prepublication copy of a surrejoinder to a rejoinder we published in Evangelical Quarterly.

I then emailed him a reply.

His surrejoinder has just been published:

http://www.trinitysem.edu/journal/5-3/TOC_v5n3.htm

Since I don’t see any difference between the prepublication version and the published edition, I’ll simply post (with minimal revision) my original letter:



John,

Thanks for the copy of the forthcoming article. Sorry I didn't have time to reply sooner.

A few comments on a few of your statements:

"The upshot of all of this for Van Til is that the so-called 'point of contact,' that is, the intellectual common ground where a Christian can address a non-believer, is narrow at best, and always tenuous."

VT doesn't have a cookie-cutter view of the unbeliever. Common grace is not uniform in the intensity of its distribution.

Some unbelievers are more self-consciously hostile to all things Christian than others.

Unbelievers like, say, Dawkins or Dennett, if they found any common ground, would immediately set about to dynamite the bridge, even if their own life depended on it.

But in the case of other unbelievers, common grace may have preserved a larger swath of common sense.

This variability is not keyed to any particular school of apologetics. Whether you're a Van Tilian, evidentialist, natural theologian, or what-all, you're either going to face the same opening or the same wall depending on who in particular you are talking to.

"Perhaps the Van Tillian will claim that the willful rejection of God entails more than just fallen man's desire to escape moral and ethical duties. Original sin has actually impaired our very reasoning process; we can no longer "think straight" as a result of the noetic effects of sin. Indeed, Van Til says of fallen human reason that 'we cannot grant that it has any right to judge in matters of theology, or, for the matter of that, in anything else. The Scriptures nowhere appeal to the unregenerated reason as to a qualified judge.'"

This fails to distinguish between our rational faculties and our rational standards. VT is talking about the unbeliever's criteria, not his innate ability to reason.

"Frame realizes, of course, that there are other versions of God among the religions of the world, but he tends to dismiss them, one reason being because he sees most of them as derivative of the biblical God. Thus, these Gods are not serious candidates because, after all, they are only poor copies of the triune God of the Bible. Listen to what he says on this matter: 'Christian heresies are religions influenced by the Bible, but which deny the central biblical gospel. Among the Christian heresies are not only those designated as such in history (Arianism, Gnosticism, Sabellianism, Docetism, Eutychianism, etc.), but also the historic rivals of Christianity, namely, Judaism and Islam.' When I first read this, I was not sure but that I had encountered a typographical error. Judaism, a religion that preceded Christianity by centuries, and eventually gave birth to it, is a Christian heresy? I will leave it to the reader to puzzle out what Frame could possibly mean by this. (But perhaps he says this because he knows that his apologetic system would work as well for a Jew as for a Christian. After all, The God of the Old Testament is the God of the New Testament!)."

This is a semantic quibble. I remember Bruce Waltke once saying in class that because he's an OT prof., people constantly ask him questions about Judaism, expecting him to be an authority on Judaism.

As he explains to them, he's an authority on OT religion, not Judaism, which is completely different.

Frame is clearly referring to post-Second Temple Judaism, which is largely shaped in reaction to Christianity.

"Additionally, I think many others, both Christian and non-Christian, would have trouble with Frame's assessment of Islam as a Christian heresy."

"Many would have trouble"?

This impressionistic, quantitative appeal is not a reasoned objection to Frame's position.

"By assigning Islam (and Judaism!) to the disreputable realm of Christian heresy, Frame artificially strengthens his case that only the Christian God can account for the world as we know it."

This assignment is only artificial if Islam is not, in fact, a Christian heresy. You've said nothing to overturn Frame's claim.

True, Frame didn't go on to document his claim. That's because, in this instance, Frame is outlining an apologetic strategy rather than a full-blown argument.

Because apologetics is so specialized and interdisciplinary, he outsources certain issues to Christians with some expertise in that field. On Islam, for example, he may delegate the detailed argumentation to a guy like Bob Morey.

"Geisler, in discussing Islamic theologians' understanding of Allah's revelation of the Koran to Muhammad, notes that Muslims understand Allah's speech to be an 'eternal attribute of God that is not identical to God but is somehow distinguishable from him.' If this so, Geisler reasons, "it would seem that the Islamic view of God's
absolute unity is, by their own distinction, not incompatible with Christian trinitarianism."

This represents a later development in Islamic theology. And it's a point of tension in Islamic theology.

"As to the charge that Van Til and Frame seem to level against Allah, namely, that he is too far removed and distant (i.e., not immanent enough) to truly be the source of all logic, order and morality, Muslims have no difficulty in maintaining that Allah is indeed the
force that binds the universe together in a coherent, rational manner."

"Maintaining" and "demonstrating" are two different things. The question is not what Muslims believe, but whether they can make good on their claims. That's what apologetics is all about.

"A Muslim could do so because Allah, as portrayed in the Koran, seems to be described in much the same way as God is in the Bible, that is, as the absolute master of the universe."

To the extent that this is true, it's because Islam is a Christian heresy.

"But, even if Muhammad fashioned Allah after the God of the Bible (and this seems obvious to me) it is not obvious to Muslims, who take the Koranic descriptions of Allah to be infallible revelation, and thus a sure basis for apologetics."

What is true and what is "obvious" are often two very different things. That's what apologetics and philosophy are for.

By definition, a Muslim will deny that the Koran is, in part, a garbled, hearsay version of the Bible. We expect that. But we do more than lodge a claim. We go on to document the claim.

This is not a question of countering their assertions with our assertions. Rather, this is a question of backing up our assertions with relevant evidence or logic.

"But I still fail to see how Allah could not be the Creator of the world. Frame might reply that only a fully transcendent and fully immanent God could be responsible for the world as we know it. But how does he know that? Because it seems logical? Well, perhaps, but Muslims, and the ever-growing numbers who convert to Islam each year,
do not see Christianity as logically superior in this regard."

What they "see" (or not)?

i) You keep resorting to this populist appeal. That's not
apologetics. That's not an argument for or against anything.

ii) BTW, what makes you think that most converts even convert to Islam for philosophical reasons? Do you have some polling data?

"Geisler, writing about Van Til's insistence that only the triune God of Christianity can explain the world, says that 'Certainly, as Van Til argues, it is necessary to posit a God to make sense out of the world. However, he has not shown that it is necessary to posit a triune God. This is true whether or not one accepts his argument that only the Trinity solves the problem of the one and the many.'"

Sorry, but this denial doesn't make any sense to me. If one did accept his argument that the Trinity solves the one-over-many problem, then why would that not be a compelling argument for the Trinity as well as the religion with which it's affiliated?

"Van Til, contrary to much popular belief, is not opposed to using evidences to help prove the truth of Christianity. In fact, he welcomes the use of evidence, provided it is presented as part of the overall Christian presuppositional worldview. What Van Til will not allow is for man, with his so-called autonomous reason, to examine the traditional apologetic evidences on their own merit, apart from the
Christian presuppositions that Van Til says these evidences depend upon."

Largely true, though to speak of evidences "on their own merit apart from Christian presuppositions" assumes that they have intrinsic merit apart from Christian presuppositions.

"Now, what does the Muslim apologist claim? He claims, not surprisingly, that his scriptures are the only true revelation of God. In fact, the Muslim in this instance actually goes Van Til one better, for the Muslim claims that his Koranic presuppositions involve accepting the belief that the Bible contains errors and is not trustworthy! Just as Van Til insists that sinful, unregenerate man cannot be trusted to sit in judgment upon scripture, so the Muslim insists that the Bible is inferior to the Koran. Christians have no right to judge the Koran based upon the Bible, because the Bible contains willful misrepresentations of divine truth. The 'revelations to Muhammad were a renewal of God's earlier revelations to Adam, Abraham, Moses, Jesus, and many other prophets, revelations that Muhammad said had been corrupted.' This willful corruption of the Bible sounds a great deal like the sinful, deliberate rejection of God that Van Til claims all unbelievers are guilty of."

This plays on some serious equivocations:

i) It fails to distinguish between the Meccan and Medinan verses. In the earlier—Meccan—verses, Christians are accorded the right to judge the Koran. Muhammad appeals to the People of the Book (Jews & Christians) to vouch for his prophetic credentials. So he sets up the Bible and its Judeo-Christian interpreters as the standard of
reference.

By the time we get to the Medinan verses, there's a dramatic about-face. This is one of the major hurdles in Islamic apologetics.

ii) There’s an elementary difference between saying that the text is corrupt, and saying the reader is corrupt.

"The Christian can easily counter the Muslim claim that the Bible has been corrupted; the manuscript evidence, for the New Testament especially, is so great as to virtually guarantee that the New Testament text we read today is essentially the same as what was contained in the autographs. But of course, this does not matter at
all to the Muslim apologist; his Koran says the Bible is corrupt, and that is all there is to it. Well, he must say this; there are too many contradictions between the Bible and the Koran. The Muslim apologist will not let textual scholars, with their Van Tillian "autonomous reason," sit in judgment upon the Koran in this matter, any more than Van Til will let a non-believer sit in judgment upon the Bible. We thus seem to have reached a stalemate. Both Van Til, and his Muslim counterpart, argue that their particular scripture must be trusted, and all others rejected. All of this will strike the unbeliever as fideism."

Here are some more equivocations:

i) To say that no one can sit in judgment of God's word (whether we identify that word with the text of Scripture or the Koran) assumes that the text before you is, indeed, God's word. The Koran itself has a very checkered textual history. Even if you believe in Koranic revelation, a spurious text is not the word of Allah. Hence, it lacks
the authority of Allah.

So an appeal to authority in matters of textual criticism will beg the question. You must establish the authenticity of the text before you can identify it with the word of Allah (or Yahweh or Christ). The only authoritative text is an authentic text. The text must be authenticated before it can be authoritative.

ii) And unless he can demonstrate that the text of the Bible is unreliable, a Muslim apologist is stuck with the contradiction between the Meccan and Medinan verses. This is not sitting in judgment of the Koran, as if we were applying an outside standard to the Koran—although Muhammad himself does that very same thing in the
Meccan verses.

Rather, this is a problem internal to the sacred text of Islam itself. It's a twofold problem:

a) The contradiction between the Meccan and Medinan verses, and:

b) The checkered history of the Koranic text itself.

"But the problem with Van Til's approach to Christian evidences is that, once a non-Christian accepts the presuppositions that Van Til insists upon, he is already a Christian! What is the point of arguing, say, for the historicity of the resurrection if the person with whom the apologist is debating already accepts all of Van Til's preconditions about the nature of the debate?"

This is confusing several different things:

i) There are the presuppositions with which the apologist operates. The unbeliever may or may not accept these presuppositions, but they guide the apologist. This is what, in the first instance, the apologist presupposes.

ii) Van Til also proposes an exercise:

a) For the sake of argument, ask the unbeliever to assume the Christian viewpoint, and then ask him whether that makes better sense of the world. Here the Christian apologist takes the unbeliever on a guided tour of what Christian theism leads to.

b) For the sake of argument, the Christian apologist assumes the unbelieving viewpoint, and takes the unbeliever on a guided tour of what that leads to.

We've been over this ground before.

"The same could be said for the Muslim presupposition that the Koran is the theological corrective to a textually corrupt Bible. Once someone accepts this basic presupposition, he is already a Muslim-no one but a Muslim believes that the Koran contains the very words of God, words that pre-existed in heaven before being revealed to
Muhammad. If appeals to outside evidence are rendered unnecessary by both the Van Tillian as well as the Muslim approach, how can a non-theist ever decide which of these great world religions is true?"

This is a caricature. By now you really should know better.

Where does Frame or Van Til say that outside evidence is unnecessary?

There's more to Van Tilian apologetics than transcendental reasoning. Remember that there was a division of labor at Westminster. VT could delegate the evidential task to his colleagues in the OT and NT depts. He left that to Allis, Young, Machen, and Stonehouse.

He then concentrated on the philosophical task, since that was his forte.

"A Van Tillian would say that Christianity is obviously true, because it teaches what all men instinctively know, namely, that there is a God, and that unbelievers knowingly reject him despite the fact that they know better."

Yes, but VT wouldn't use that as an argument with unbelievers.

The point is, why are unbelievers? Is it a simple matter of innocent ignorance? Do they just need to be educated in the faith?

Or does it run much deeper? Is there a willful rejection of the truth?

This is not, of itself, an apologetic argument, but it does make a difference in what the apologist can expect from many unbelievers, and it therefore shapes his tactical approach.

"The Van Tillian could claim that Christianity is true because the Bible teaches that it is true."

Another caricature. You're not trying very hard.

"What about an appeal to evidential arguments, like the resurrection?"

This assumes that an argument for the resurrection is a purely evidential argument. Is it?

What a typical atheist will do is to turn the argument for the resurrection into a probabilistic argument, and then dismiss the resurrection as wildly improbable. A guy like Michael Martin will take Humean assumptions and plug them into Bayesean probability theory.

Appealing to the raw evidence isn't going to make a dent in his armor.

"Van Til rules this out unless one views it with the spectacles of Christian presuppositions. And it is precisely those presuppositions that are the problem, for they are no more convincing than the presuppositions that an Islamic apologist could use in the defense of his faith."

i) Really? You think that Christian presuppositions are no more convincing than Islamic presuppositions?

ii) And what happens when it really is a clash of competing presuppositions? What about Hume and Martin—to name a few? What if the point of conflict does come down to a presuppositional issue rather than an evidential issue?

iii) It sounds nice to have a set of criteria which everyone agrees on. But that's chimerical.

iv) Even if there were such a set of criteria, that only pushes the question back a step. How do we identify these criteria? What are our selection criteria for our selection criteria? Where to they come from? How do we know that these are the right rules of evidence or the suitable truth-conditions?

v) Assuming that we do have a good set of criteria, what makes them sound criteria? Because, presumably, they match up with the way the world is.

But if, in fact, God is a member of the real world, then the criteria must include God. They must implicate God. For in order to be true to the world, they must be true to a world in which God exists.

They validate the existence of God, but by that very same token, the existence of God validates the criteria. For them to be true of a world with God, God must be true.

Were they entirely independent of the truth-claim, then they'd never implicate the truth-claim in the first place.

Like a roadmap, the reasoning is reversible. I can go from the point of origin to the destination, or I can retrace my steps. There's no one starting-point.

The problem with the evidentialist is that he using certain criteria to argue for the existence of God. The criteria are independent of God. Indifferent to God. They criteria are one thing, and the theistic arguments are another.

Now, the Van Tilian doesn't object to using criteria to argue for the existence of God. But the Van Tilian makes another move. He doesn't merely use criteria or argue with criteria.

Rather, he finds, in the criteria themselves, the makings of a theistic proof. What makes these criteria possible? What makes them truth-conducive? What are their truth-conditions? What are the necessary conditions without which they would not be reliable rules of evidence?

"I do not wish to claim that there is no value in the Van Tillian system; far from it. As I stated above, Van Til (and Frame) does a masterful job of showing how the non-theist has no rational basis for his perceptions of the world, since he will not allow for a proper theistic foundation for those perceptions. But, as I have shown in
this paper, Van Til's system does not fair nearly so well against a theistic, in this case a Muslim, position."

It's true that a transcendental argument is less effective against a rival position which is, in many respects, a calculated counterfeit. For the counterfeit will ape many of the properties of the original.

In that case, you expose the counterfeit for what it is—a Christian heresy. You talk about the background and behavior of the founder. You compare and contrast the "new" revelation to its template (the Bible).

"For the absurdity that results when two combating apologists both claim to be in possession of their own inerrant set of self-authenticating scriptures, see John W. Montgomery, "Once Upon an A Priori," in Jerusalem and Athens, ed. E. R. Geehan (Philadelphia: P and R Publishing, 1971), 380-392."

i) Why do you think it's okay to criticize Frame for "artificially" classifying Islam as a Christian heresy when you continue to resort to this utterly artificial thought-experiment by Montgomery?

ii) Moreover, as both Frame and I have pointed out before, we can simply substitute evidentialist Gibis and Shadoks for Van Tilian Gibis and Shadoks.

iii) Furthermore, it's illogical to reject the self-authentication of Scripture just because it has certain consequences. Just because someone may mimic the same claim. That's no way to disprove a truth-claim.

How many Christians have the intellect or education of John Warwick Montgomery?

Most Christians at most times and places have been in no position, either in terms of natural aptitude or educational resources, to mount an evidential case for their faith.

So were they wrong to believe the Bible? Does your apologetic philosophy automatically discount the faith of 95% of Christians who ever lived and died? Not to mention OT Jews.

Or is there something about the Bible that makes it inherently credible and worthy of our belief?

We need to have a doctrine of Scripture which can account for and accommodate the faith of most Bible-believers, including the original audience for the Scriptures. Every Christian is not a high-powered intellectual with a resume of Ivy-League degrees.

So unless Scripture is self-authenticating, that disqualifies the faith of most of God's people, including most of the readers to whom the Bible was originally address.

iv) We also need to distinguish between historical Islam and Muslim apologists who have learned to imitate Christian terminology and Christian apologetics. We need to distinguish between historical Islam and an opportunistic repackaging of Islam theology or apologetics for
Western consumption.

On a more personal and professional note:

In some instances your new article marks an advance over the old article. In some instances, you have reformulated your original position in light of our objections. That's progress.

But in many other instances you reiterate the same arguments despite what we've said.

I don't know why you do this. If we are responsive to your arguments, you need to be responsive to our counterarguments.

If you've been corrected on a point, you either need to acknowledge the correction and withdraw your erroneous argument, or else you need to explain where our counterargument went wrong.

A Christian apologist needs to have a capacity for self-criticism.

For purposes of making a career in theology or apologetics, there's a professional temptation to accommodate a particular faith-community. To give in.

The same pressures are present in secular academia.

Resist the temptation.

Steve

Monday, October 16, 2006

Baptists and Thar' Booze

In the late 70’s leaders of the Conservative Resurgence in the SBC referenced issues related to Segram's stock that was being used to generate foundation revenue within the SBC. At that time, that was exculpatory evidence about the way the Moderates had run the Convention.

Then, Carnival Cruise Lines was also an investment of the Annuity Board criticised by these same men in the 90's/early 00's, when somebody remembered that Carnival also hosts cruises for Gay Men and Lesbians, some of which are associated with their party circuit.

Lest we forget, we now have SBC Resolution 5, passed this year at the Convention, in which we are told:

Resolution No. 5
ON ALCOHOL USE IN AMERICA

WHEREAS, Years of research confirm biblical warnings that alcohol use leads to physical, mental, and emotional damage (e.g., Proverbs 23:29-35); and

WHEREAS, Alcohol use has led to countless injuries and deaths on our nation's highways; and

WHEREAS, The breakup of families and homes can be directly and indirectly attributed to alcohol use by one or more members of a family; and

WHEREAS, The use of alcohol as a recreational beverage has been shown to lead individuals down a path of addiction to alcohol and toward the use of other kinds of drugs, both legal and illegal; and

WHEREAS, There are some religious leaders who are now advocating the consumption of alcoholic beverages based on a misinterpretation of the doctrine of "our freedom in Christ"; now, therefore, be it

RESOLVED, That the messengers to the Southern Baptist Convention meeting in Greensboro, North Carolina, June 13-14, 2006, express our total opposition to the manufacturing, advertising, distributing, and consuming of alcoholic beverages; and be it further

RESOLVED, That we urge that no one be elected to serve as a trustee or member of any entity or committee of the Southern Baptist Convention that is a user of alcoholic beverages.

RESOLVED, That we urge Southern Baptists to take an active role in supporting legislation that is intended to curb alcohol use in our communities and nation; and be it further

RESOLVED, That we urge Southern Baptists to be actively involved in educating students and adults concerning the destructive nature of alcoholic beverages; and be it finally

RESOLVED, That we commend organizations and ministries that treat alcohol-related problems from a biblical perspective and promote abstinence and encourage local churches to begin and/or support such biblically-based ministries.


Lest we forget, if you did not support Resolution 5, some in the leadership of the SBC will label you a libertine and, worst yet, a Presbyterian! Dr. Paige Patterson was one of those engaging in such argumentation shortly after the resolution was passed in June. He's President of Southwestern Seminary, whose trustees are meeting. More on that below.

Also, my brethren at the Joshua Convergence issued a statement recently stating,
“we oppose the sale and consumption of alcoholic beverages. Throughout its history, our Convention has stood against the evils of alcohol. The present generation can in good conscience do no other.”
Of course, this overlooked Mrs. John Broadus who asked James Boyce to bring back some of that KY bourbon, because she couldn't take the local blend. It also overlooks Dr. James Boyce's own proclamation to the SBC in the late 19th century that stated quite clearly that resolutions regarding alcohol were "not germane to the business of the Convention." I hope in light of the events below, the folks who agreed with the Convergence will be consistent.

Well, my brother, Marty Duren at SBC Outpost has brought some fun facts to light:

Second is an interesting proposal concerning the transfer of assets held in the Southwestern Seminary Foundation from management authority of the Baptist Foundation of Texas. (The Southwestern Seminary Foundation was started in 1998 “for the sole purpose of encouraging financial support for the mission and ministry of Southwestern Baptist Theological Seminary”. The Foundation serves as the trustee of charitable trusts, provides estate planning services for seminary donors, and issues charitable gift annuities.) At the request of Dr. Paige Patterson, president of Southwestern Seminary, the seminary board will move approximately $90 million in endowment funds from management with the Baptist Foundation of Texas to the SSF. The transfer is scheduled to occur on October 30, 2006. In order to manage the funds, Southwestern Seminary Foundation has retained The Investment Fund for Foundations, headquartered in Virginia.

According to the TIFF website, it functions as a “member-controlled not-for-profit cooperative.” However, while each of its 600 claimed non-profit foundations is a member, they “neither approve or disapprove the TIFF investment vehicles.” It is to these investment vehicles that we now turn.

TIFF features five “investment vehicles,” each of which functions as a type of mutual fund, with holdings in stocks, bonds, REITS and other instruments. If I am understanding the website correctly, members can choose to place their assets in one or more of these vehicles which are, on the very conservative side, the Short-Term Fund and the Government Bond Fund, and the more growth oriented vehicles, the Multi-Asset Fund, the International Equity Fund and the US Equity Fund. While no single holding reaches the level of even 1% of each portfolio, it is very revealing to see some of the stocks held in these three vehicles:

British American Tobacco Malaysia
Carlsberg Brewery Malaysia
Foster’s Group (You know, it’s Australian for Resolution No. 5 beer)
Heineken NV
Kirin Brewery Co.
Tsingtao Brewery Co.
Japan Tabbaco, Inc.
PartyGaming (the world’s leading online gambling company)
International Game Technology (online gambling machines and monitering systems)
Molson Coors Brewing Co.

Given that several of these are held in two or three of the funds, the total asset shares number in the hundreds of thousands for some of these holdings. I wonder if the Baptist Foundation of Texas is a little more careful in its exposure to “sin stocks”?

By the way, "sin stocks" is the term that these leaders were using about these types of investments when they complained in the past. So, they have only themselves to blame for the choice of words.

Incidentally, this coming weekend, Dr. Jerry Vines, past SBC President is due to deliver a sermon at FBC Woodstock called "A Baptist and His Booze" or somesuch. Two weeks ago, the evil he discussed was Calvinism, by the way, and before that it was theological liberalism. Yeah, I know, evangelical Calvinists are just a bunch of theologically liberal antinomians. I'm now waiting with baited breath to hear what he has to say about this, if anything. Pardon me while I go check my cornsqueezuns in the basement...

John Loftus on Unchained Radio

Back before any of us had heard of John Loftus, he appeared on Gene Cook's radio show. Hear Loftus interact with a few Christian callers (I called in around 46 minutes into the show). What you'll note is that he has not grown in his abilities as an atheologian since his appearance.

CLICK HERE TO LISTEN.

Sunday, October 15, 2006

Jesus' Deity Among The Earliest Christians: Some Examples

“[In ancient Jewish thought] God alone brought all other beings into existence. God had no helper, assistant or servant to assist or to implement his work of creation. God alone created, and no one else had any part in this activity. This is axiomatic for Second Temple Judaism….Isa. 44:24; 2 Enoch 33:4; 4 Ezra 3:4; Josephus, C. Ap. 2.192. Even Philo’s exegesis of Gen. 1:26 (De Opif. Mundi 72-75; De Conf. Ling. 179) is only a minor qualification of this denial: he insists that God acted alone in the creation of all things except humanity, and holds that the plural in Gen. 1:26 involves subordinate co-workers of God so that, while good human actions may be attributed to God as their source, sins may not….there is no suggestion anywhere in the [Second Temple Jewish] literature that principal angels or exalted patriarchs participate in the work of creation.…The Second Temple Jewish understanding of the divine uniqueness does not define it as unitariness and does not make distinctions within the divine identity inconceivable. Its perfectly clear distinction between God and all other reality is made in other terms, which in this case place God’s Wisdom unequivocally within the unique divine identity….The key to the way in which Jewish monotheism and high Christology were compatible in the early Christian movement is not the claim that Jewish monotheism left room for ambiguous semi-divinities, but the recognition that its understanding of the unique identity of the one God left room for the inclusion of Jesus in that identity. Though such a step was unprecedented, the character of Jewish monotheism did not make it impossible. Moreover, it was not a step which could be, as it were, approached gradually by means of ascending christological beliefs. To put Jesus in the position, for example, of a very high-ranking angelic servant of God would not be to come close to a further step of assimilating him to God, because the absolute distinction between God and all other reality would still have to be crossed. The decisive step of including Jesus in the unique identity of God was not a step that could be facilitated by prior, less radical steps. It was a step which, whenever it were taken, had to be taken simply for its own sake and de novo. It does not become any more intelligible by being placed at the end of a long process of christological development. In my view, the New Testament evidence is best explained if this step was taken very early as the fundamental step on which all further christological development then rested.” (Richard Bauckham, God Crucified [Grand Rapids, Michigan: Eerdmans, 1999], p. 12, n. 12 on p. 12, pp. 17-18, 22, 28)

"Already for him [Paul] the eternal Son of God had become a real man in space and time, in Judaea, and only a few years previously. This is a quite incredible and revolutionary message, without analogy in the ancient world!" (Martin Hengel, The Four Gospels And The One Gospel Of Jesus Christ [Harrisburg, Pennsylvania: Trinity Press International, 2000], p. 151)

“While disciples often revered their teachers (though many also felt free to disagree respectfully with them in time), even among Greeks first-generation students rarely turned their teachers into gods, at least in the pre-Christian period. Neither Plato (who was quite interpretive) nor Xenophon deified Socrates, nor did they appeal to his resurrection and continuing presence. How much more implausible is it that Jewish monotheists would do so? That we hear of no early Christian reaction against such teaching in the period between Paul and John – that is, during the era from which most or all of our NT comes – suggests that a common understanding developed from something in Jesus’ own life or teaching, before or after the event of the resurrection….That a first-century Palestinian Jewish movement would within its earliest decades already hold a consensus that their founder rose from the dead and was divine Wisdom is remarkable, considering that we have no comparable evidence for the deification of other first-century Jewish messianic figures. It seems that something distinctive within the movement, rather than merely following a common first-century Jewish social pattern, produced this consensus. It is difficult to comprehend how, without the authority of Jesus’ teaching, so many monotheistic Jews in the early church would have simultaneously come to emphasize Jesus’ divine character, and, while debating circumcision, food laws, Jerusalem’s authority, and other points, fail to have deeply divided over this aspect of Christology.” (Craig Keener, The Gospel Of John: A Commentary, Vol. 1 [Peabody, Massachusetts: Hendrickson Publishers, 2003], pp. 301-302, 308)

“like John, Matthew emphasizes Jesus’ deity to monotheistic readers…An ancient Jewish saying promised God’s presence not only for ten males (the minimum prerequisite for a synagogue – b. Ber. 6ab; Meg. 23b; p. Meg. 4:4, p. 5; Reicke 1974: 121; 1QS 6.3, 6; CD 13.2-3), but for even two or three gathered to study his law (m. ‘Abot 3:2, 6; Mek. Bah. 11.48ff.; cf. m. Ber. 7:3). Here [in Matthew 18:20] Jesus himself fills the role of the Shekinah, God’s presence, in the traditional Jewish saying (which probably predates this saying, since the rabbis would not likely borrow it from Christian sources; cf. Smith 1951: 152-53; Meier 1980: 206; Barth 1963: 135; Sievers 1984). Jewish teachers often called God ‘the Place,’ that is, ‘the Omnipresent One’; Jesus is ‘God with us’ (1:23; 28:20)….Disciples baptize [as a result of Matthew 28:19] not only in the name of the Father and the Holy Spirit, whom biblical and Jewish tradition regarded as divine, but also in the name of the Son. Placing Jesus on the same level as the Father and Spirit makes even more explicit what is implicit in Acts’s ‘baptism in Jesus’ name’ (Acts 2:38; 8:16; 10:48; 19:5; cf. 22:16) – that is, that Jesus is divine (28:19)….Jesus’ divinity is explicit in Luke’s theology of baptism in Jesus’ name, Acts 2:38 fulfilling Joel’s prophecy recorded in [Acts] 2:21….Cf. repentance ‘in the name of the Most High God’ (Jos. and Asen. 15:7); salvation ‘in the name of the Lord of Spirits’ (1 Enoch 48:7)” (Craig Keener, A Commentary On The Gospel Of Matthew [Grand Rapids, Michigan: William B. Eerdmans Publishing Company, 1999], pp. 67, 455-456, 716-717)

“Jesus’ response [in Matthew 21:16], again using the introductory rebuke ‘Have you never read?’ tacitly applauds their [the children’s] acclamation in light of Ps 8:2 (LXX 8:3, which is quoted verbatim). There the children are praising Yahweh, so Jesus again accepts worship that is reserved for God alone.” (Craig Blomberg, Matthew [Nashville, Tennessee: Broadman Press, 1992], pp. 315-316)

“Mark also believes Jesus is deity: his reapplication of the ‘Lord’ of Isa 40:3 to Jesus (Mark 1:3) can be understood in no other way. The Fourth Gospel’s independent tradition might even suggest that the Baptist used this verse to describe his own mission as preparing the Lord’s way….Mark probably had other traditions available, and could have used some of those which emphasize Christ’s deity differently, but that was not Mark’s purpose. The closest he comes is the allusion in 6:48-50 to Job 9:8-11; the coincidence of rare images in a short space (God treading the waves and passing by) is so close that Mark surely intends an allusion to that passage here, and hence an allusion to Christ’s deity….Conjoined with the oft-recognized probable allusion to Christ’s deity in the ‘I am’ of Mark 6:50” (Craig Keener, The Gospel Of John: A Commentary, Vol. 1 [Peabody, Massachusetts: Hendrickson Publishers, 2003], p. 305 and n. 225 on p. 305)

“So, in the light of the connexions with Isaiah 6:1 and 57:15, the meaning of Isaiah 52:13 is that the Servant is exalted to the heavenly throne of God. This is why, in John 12:38-41, Isaiah 53 and Isaiah 6 are brought together, and Isaiah is said to have seen Jesus’ glory, meaning that he did so when he saw the glory of the Lord in his vision in chapter 6 of his prophecy….It is certainly not accidental that, whereas in the Hebrew Bible there are seven occurrences of ani hu and two of the emphatic variation anoki anoki hu (Isa. 43:25; 51:12), in John there are seven absolute ‘I am’ sayings, with the seventh repeated twice (18:5, 6, 8) for the sake of an emphatic climax (thus seven or nine in both cases). The series of sayings thus comprehensively identifies Jesus with the God of Israel who sums up his identity in the declaration ‘I am he’.” (Richard Bauckham, God Crucified [Grand Rapids, Michigan: Eerdmans, 1999], pp. 51, 55-56)

“the recognition that he [Jesus] knew ‘all things’ ([John] 16:30; 18:4; 21:17), however, should have pointed the disciples not only to Jesus’ origin but to his deity (see 1 John 3:20; comment on 2:23-25)” (Craig Keener, The Gospel Of John: A Commentary, Vol. 2 [Peabody, Massachusetts: Hendrickson Publishers, 2003], p. 1048)

“Luke may emphasize Christ’s deity less [than Mark]. Luke does not deny a view held in other early Christian circles – Peter’s sermon in Acts 2 builds on an identification of Jesus (cf. 2:38) as the Lord of Joel (Acts 2:21), thus baptism is offered ‘in Jesus’ name.’ Luke does not deny early Christian affirmation of Christ’s deity; he simply emphasizes what is most useful in his apologetic history. Luke thus provides the clearest evidence that different writers could stress different Christologies without opposing earlier Christologies in their sources.” (Craig Keener, The Gospel Of John: A Commentary, Vol. 1 [Peabody, Massachusetts: Hendrickson Publishers, 2003], p. 306)

“Similarly, although the identity of ‘the Lord’ to whom Peter advises that prayer be made in [Acts] 8:22 (‘Pray to the Lord’), and the identity of ‘the Lord’ in Simon’s reply in 8:24 (‘Pray for me to the Lord’), may be seen as somewhat ambiguous, the fact that elsewhere in this scene ‘the Lord’ is explicitly identified by Luke as ‘the Lord Jesus’ (8:16) means that we may assume in the exchange between Simon and Peter throughout 8:14-25 that Jesus is in view. Furthermore, Stephen offers prayer to Jesus (7:59-60), as does Ananias (9:10-17; see esp. v. 17, where ‘the Lord’ is directly specified as ‘Jesus’). So routine, in fact, is christocentric prayer to the identity of the early Christians that they can be known as ‘those who call upon the name’ of Jesus (cf. 2:21; 7:59; 9:14, 21; 22:16). The prayer practices of the early church, therefore, highlight important christological affirmations that move beyond what was characteristic of Judaism. According to Peter’s sermon at Pentecost, Jesus is God’s coregent who dispenses the blessings of salvation to all who ‘call on the name of the Lord’ (2:14-41). In this capacity, he has become an object of devotion and a source of salvation – roles reserved only for God within Jewish tradition.” (Joel Green, in Richard Bauckham, ed., Into God’s Presence [Grand Rapids, Michigan: Eerdmans, 2001], p. 188)

“when the early Christians called Jesus kyrios, one of the overtones that word quickly acquired, astonishing and even shocking though this must have been, was that texts in the Greek Bible which used kyrios to translate the divine name YHWH were now used to denote Jesus himself, with a subtlety and theological sophistication that seems to go back to the earliest days of the Christian movement….In 1 Corinthians 8.6 Paul takes the Shema itself, the central daily Jewish prayer and confession of monotheistic faith (‘YHWH our God, YHWH is one’), and gives the two words YHWH (kyrios) and ‘God’ (theos) different referents, so that theos refers to ‘the father, from whom are all things and we to him’ and kyrios refers to ‘Jesus the Messiah, through whom are all things and we through him’….Paul elsewhere takes particular texts which refer to YHWH and uses them, without apology or even much explanation, as texts about Jesus. [Romans 10:13 cited]…Likewise, the whole theme of ‘the day of YHWH’ in the Old Testament has been transposed, in Paul and elsewhere in early Christianity, into ‘the day of the kyrios’, i.e. of Jesus, or into ‘the day of the Messiah’. [Acts 2:20, 1 Corinthians 1:8, 5:5, 2 Corinthians 1:14, Philippians 1:6, 1:10, 2:16, 1 Thessalonians 5:2, 2 Peter 3:10]…The first letter of Peter (2.3) speaks of ‘tasting that the Lord is good’, quoting, in relation to Jesus, what Psalm 34 had said about YHWH. In 1 Peter 3.15 we find a quotation from Isaiah 8.13 in which ‘the Messiah’ has been added to ‘Lord’ to make it clear that what was spoken of YHWH in this Old Testament passage is now to be understood of Jesus the Messiah….He [Paul] had, in the senses we have explored, a different kind of meeting with Jesus, but he quickly came to the conclusion which the others, too, had arrived at: that in this Jesus, now demonstrated to have been Israel’s Messiah all along, Israel’s one true god had been not merely speaking, as though through an intermediary, but personally present.” (N.T. Wright, The Resurrection Of The Son Of God [Minneapolis, Minnesota: Fortress Press, 2003], pp. 571-572, 576)

“Despite this difference of opinion [over whether Jesus is referred to as God in Romans 9:5], arguments in favor of taking ‘God’ as an appellation of ‘Messiah’ greatly outweigh those that support the alternative. Favoring a comma after ‘Messiah’ (and thus the first option) are several stylistic arguments. First, the words ‘the one who is’ are most naturally taken as a relative clause modifying a word in the previous context (see the similar construction in 1 Cor. 11:31). Second, Paul’s doxologies are never independent but always are tied closely to the preceding context. Third, independent blessings of God in the Bible, with only one exception (Ps. 67:19), place the word ‘blessed’ in the first position. Here, however, the Greek word for ‘blessed’ occurs after ‘God,’ suggesting that the blessing must be tied to the previous context. As Metzger points out, it is ‘altogether incredible that Paul, whose ear must have been perfectly familiar with this constantly recurring formula of praise, should in this solitary instance have departed from established usage.’ Fourth, as suggested above, the qualifying phrase ‘according to the flesh’ implies an antithesis; and Paul usually supplies the antithetical element in such cases, rather than allowing the reader simply to assume it. In other words, we would expect, after a description of what the Messiah is from a ‘fleshly’ or ‘this-worldly’ standpoint, a description of what he is from a ‘spiritual’ or ‘otherworldly’ standpoint; see especially Rom. 1:3-4….Paul almost certainly does call Jesus ‘God’ in one other text (Tit. 2:13). Second, the exalted language Paul uses to describe Jesus [Romans 10:13 and Philippians 2:6 cited] as well as the activities Paul ascribes to him [Romans 1:7, 1 Corinthians 4:4-5, 2 Corinthians 5:10, Colossians 1:16, 3:13, and 2 Thessalonians 1:7-9 cited] clearly attest Paul’s belief in the full deity of Christ….Connecting ‘God’ to ‘Christ’ [in Romans 9:5] is therefore exegetically preferable, theologically unobjectionable, and contextually appropriate. Paul here calls the Messiah, Jesus, ‘God,’ attributing to him full divine status.” (Douglas Moo, The Epistle To The Romans [Grand Rapids, Michigan: Eerdmans, 1996], pp. 567-568)

“Is Paul actually calling Christ God here [in Romans 9:5]? The question hinges on punctuation. There is no question but that it is better Greek to regard the ho on which follows ‘the Christ’ as referring back to Christ rather than forward to theos, ‘God.’ Furthermore, whenever we find a doxology elsewhere, including in Paul, it begins with ‘blessed’ or some similar term, not with ho on. Those who want to find an independent doxology to God here are hard-pressed to explain why the doxology does not follow this normal pattern. In fact, the one real objection to Christ being called God here is that Paul supposedly does not do so elsewhere. But this is not true. He does do so in equivalent terms in Phil. 2.5-11, and furthermore when he calls Christ ‘Lord,’ he is predicating of Jesus the divine name used for God over and over in the LXX. We find Jesus called divine Lord, indeed confessed as such in Rom. 10.9, and then an OT passage (Joel 3.5 LXX) in which God is called ‘Lord’ is applied to Jesus at 10.13. Paul has christologically redefined how he understands monotheism, and 9.5 is just further evidence of the fact.” (Ben Witherington with Darlene Hyatt, Paul’s Letter To The Romans: A Socio-Rhetorical Commentary [Grand Rapids, Michigan: Eerdmans, 2004], pp. 251-252)

“Those who dissent [against seeing Jesus as God in Romans 9:5], noting that this is not Paul’s usual terminology, nevertheless concur that a doxology to Christ as ‘God’ remains the most likely interpretation of the grammar (Hunter, Romans, 90; idem, Paul, 62-63).” (Craig Keener, The Gospel Of John: A Commentary, Vol. 1 [Peabody, Massachusetts: Hendrickson Publishers, 2003], n. 196 on p. 302)

“The marana tha invocation of 1 Cor 16:22 ‘is clear evidence that in the very earliest days the Aramaic-speaking church referred to Jesus by the title that in the OT belongs to God alone.’ In other words, the title ‘is the ascription to Jesus of the functions of deity.’” (Craig Keener, The Gospel Of John: A Commentary, Vol. 1 [Peabody, Massachusetts: Hendrickson Publishers, 2003], p. 298)

“Alluding to Isa 45:23, the hymn [in Philippians 2:10] transfers to the exalted Christ the universal eschatological homage there given to God alone (cf. Rom 14:11).” (Brendan Byrne, in Raymond Brown, et al., editors, The New Jerome Biblical Commentary [Englewood Cliffs, New Jersey: Prentice Hall, 1990], p. 795)

“Careful study of Hebrews 1, for which we lack space here, would reveal with what care and sophistication the passage employs all the key features by which Jewish monotheism standardly characterized the uniqueness of God in order to include Jesus within the unique divine identity.” (Richard Bauckham, God Crucified [Grand Rapids, Michigan: Eerdmans, 1999], pp. 33-34)

“This [2 Peter 1:1] appears to be a clear example of Jesus being called God” (Ben Witherington, in Ralph Martin and Peter Davids, editors, Dictionary Of The Later New Testament & Its Developments [Downers Grove, Illinois: InterVarsity Press, 1997], p. 154)

“The ‘First and the Last’ title [applied to Jesus in Revelation 1:17] derives from Isa. 41:4; 44:6; 48:12, where it refers to God as creator of all and sovereign over history….As already stated, this [the worship of Jesus in Revelation 5] is part of the great emphasis in the book on the deity of the Lamb who is ‘worthy’ of the same worship as God….The worship of the Lamb in chapter 5 [of Revelation] parallels that of God in chapter 4, and everything said here applies to our worship of Christ.” (Grant Osborne, Revelation [Grand Rapids, Michigan: Baker Academic, 2002], pp. 95, 264, 266)