Wednesday, July 12, 2006

The end of irreligion

Along with Richard Dawkins, Sam Harris appears to be the superstar atheist du jour. He’s written a book, a few articles, and given a slew of interviews. But what does his argument amount to? Let’s take a representative sampling.

In his “Atheist Manifesto,” he spends a lot of time on the problem of evil in his opening gambit. But there are a couple of fundamental failings with this objection:

1.He never explains, from a secular standpoint, why the problem of evil is a problem. What is problematic about natural or moral evil?

From a secular standpoint, natural disasters are natural mechanisms by which the ecosystem equalizes certain imbalances in nature.

Likewise, from a secular standpoint, violence is a biological imperative, programmed into our genes by natural selection. It confers a survival advantage on the species, the way a young lion will oust an old lion from the pride, kill the cubs, and take over the harem.

If nature is all there is, or if human beings are the byproduct of evolution, then why is Harris so offended by the indifference of nature or the bestiality of human behavior?

His moral and emotional intuitions are at war with his worldview.

2.He never engages any of the theodicean proposals to deal with the problem of evil. Various answers have been given. But he makes no reasoned effort to show what’s wrong with these answers.

He then launches into a trenchant critic of theological moderates. A conservative could agree with this element of his argument.

He also takes issue with Pascal’s wager. However, it does look like he’s ever read Pascal. It’s just the usual, second-hand dismissal.

The wager is not the sum of Pascal’s apologetic. Pascal offers various lines of evidence for the Christian faith. The wager is merely a way of getting the apathetic unbeliever to look at the evidence. It was never intended to be a substitute for evidence.

Harris equates faith with fideism. But fideism is only one particular tradition. There are many other theological traditions in which the relation between faith and reason is not fideistic, viz. Thomism, evidentialism, Augustinianism, presuppositionalism, &c.

He then spends some time trying to explain away the atrocities of secular humanism, viz. Hitler, Stalin, Mao, Pol Pot.

He also argues that post-Christian countries are more charitable than the US. Among other things, this fails to distinguish between private charity and foreign aid.

In the final section he contends that religion in a source of violence. For example:

“The recent conflicts in Palestine (Jews versus Muslims), the Balkans (Orthodox Serbians versus Catholic Croatians; Orthodox Serbians versus Bosnian and Albanian Muslims), Northern Ireland (Protestants versus Catholics), Kashmir (Muslims versus Hindus), Sudan (Muslims versus Christians and animists), Nigeria (Muslims versus Christians), Ethiopia and Eritrea (Muslims versus Christians), Sri Lanka (Sinhalese Buddhists versus Tamil Hindus), Indonesia (Muslims versus Timorese Christians), Iran and Iraq (Shiite versus Sunni Muslims), and the Caucasus (Orthodox Russians versus Chechen Muslims; Muslim Azerbaijanis versus Catholic and Orthodox Armenians) are merely a few cases in point. In these places religion has been the explicit cause of literally millions of deaths in the last 10 years.”

http://www.truthdig.com/dig/page4/200512_an_atheist_manifesto/

i) But there are several flaws in this illustration, such as its basic failure to isolate religious motives from nationalism or ethnic identity.

Moreover, many Jews are secular Jews. Many Hindus and Buddhist are nominal Hindus and Buddhists.

ii) It fails to distinguish between aggression and self-defense.

iii) Notice, too, the common denominator of Islam.

Here’s another formulation of his argument:

“It’s quite simple and direct. And inevitable. If you truly believe that your neighbor is going to hell for his unbelief, and you believe that his ideas about the world are putting the souls of your children in peril, it is quite sensible to drive him from your community, or kill him.”

http://www.samharris.org/index.php/samharris/full-text/qa_with_sam_harris/

But this is only “quite simple, direct, and inevitable” if the religionist believes that nominal faith is saving faith.

Evangelicalism does not regard nominal faith as saving faith.

Here’s an effort by Harris to target Christianity in particular:

“Since the publication of my first book, The End of Faith, I have received thousands of letters and e-mails from religious believers insisting that I am wrong not to believe in God. Invariably, the most unpleasant of these communications have come from Christians.”

http://www.secularhumanism.org/index.php?section=library&page=sharris_26_4

But there are a couple of problems with this allegation:

1.Harris himself has leveled many unpleasant accusations against the Christian faith. So why does he reserve the exclusive right to be unpleasant?

2.Harris has also said: “In fact, it's ironic that some of the most vituperative criticism I've gotten has come from atheists because, in the last chapter of my book, I talk about meditation and mystical experience.”

http://www.salon.com/books/int/2006/07/07/harris/index.html

How does Harris square his sweeping statement about Christian critics with his opposing statement about the secular critics?

Continuing:

“Many who claim to have been transformed by Christ's love are deeply, even murderously, intolerant of criticism.”

Many Christians are “murderously” intolerant of criticism? Has Harris been murdered? He seems pretty articulate for a murder victim.

Can Harris cite any crime stats from the FBI on the number—remember, it’s “many”—of Christians who murder unbelievers due to their sectarian intolerance of the secular critics?

Continuing:

“Consider: every devout Muslim has the same reasons for being a Muslim that you now have for being a Christian.”

Is that a fact?

i) To begin with, most devout Muslims live in closed societies where it’s a capital offense to leave the Islamic faith. Do Christian Americans suffer from the same disincentive?

ii) Harris is also assuming, without offering any comparative documentation, that the evidence for Islam is the same as the evidence for Christianity.

“And yet, you know exactly what it is like not to find these reasons compelling.”

We don’t find their reasons compelling because they either don’t give the same reasons, or because, when they try to give the same reasons, the parallel doesn’t hold up to rational scrutiny.

“On virtually every page, the Qur'an declares that it is the perfect word of the Creator of the universe. Muslims believe this as fully as you believe the Bible's account of itself.”

This is not the only reason that Christians believe the Bible. If Harris spent a little time in the field of Christian apologetics, he would know better.

“There is a vast literature describing the life of Muhammad that, from the Muslim point of view, proves his unique status as the Prophet of God.”

Yes, dating to about 200 years after his death at the earliest.

“While Muhammad did not claim to be divine, he claimed to offer the most perfect revelation of God's will. He also assured his followers that Jesus was not divine (Qur'an 5:71-75; 19:30-38) and that anyone who believed otherwise would spend eternity in hell. Muslims are convinced that Muhammad's pronouncements on these subjects, as on all others, are infallible. Why don't you find these claims convincing? Why don't you lose any sleep over whether or not you should convert to Islam?”

Why don’t we find these claims convincing? For at least a couple of reasons:

i) They are uncorroborated by prophecy, prodigy, archeology, or multiple-attestation—among other deficiencies.

ii) As a Christian heresy, Islam claims to be verified by the Bible. But if you compare the Bible to the Koran, Islam is falsified by the Bible.

That’s just for starters.

“Understand that the way you view Islam is precisely the way every Muslim views Christianity.”

True, and that’s because most Muslims are ignorant of the Bible, church history, and Koranic lower criticism.

“Christians regularly assert that the Bible predicts future historical events.”

No, we don’t merely assert it—we argue for it.

“But just imagine how breathtakingly specific a work of prophecy could be if it were actually the product of omniscience. If the Bible were such a book, it would make specific, falsifiable predictions about human events. You would expect it to contain a passage like, "In the latter half of the twentieth century, humankind will develop a globally linked system of computers-the principles of which I set forth in Leviticus-and this system shall be called the Internet." The Bible contains nothing remotely like this. In fact, it does not contain a single sentence that could not have been written by a man or woman living in the first century.”

1.Notice that Harris has done nothing to disprove the argument from prophecy. No attempt to deal with the actual prophecies of Scripture. Instead, he’s changing the subject.

ii) If a prophecy were too specific, it’s fulfillment could be thwarted. It would give people enough advance knowledge to frustrate the terms of fulfillment by doing something else—like tipping off a drug dealer that the cops are about to stage a raid on his base of operations.

“Take a moment to imagine how good a book could be if it were written by the Creator of the universe. Such a book could contain a chapter on mathematics that, after two thousand years of continuous use, would still be the richest source of mathematical insight the earth has ever seen.”

That is not the purpose of the Bible.

“Instead, the Bible contains some very obvious mathematical errors. In two places, for instance, the Good Book gives the ratio of a circumference of a circle to its diameter as simply 3 (1 Kings 7: 23-26 and 2 Chronicles 4: 2-5). We now refer to this constant relation with the Greek letter p. While the decimal expansion of p runs to infinity-3.1415926535 . . .-we can calculate it to any degree of accuracy we like.”

Several problems with this charge:

i) The Bible uses round numbers. Is a round number an error?

If so, is Harris in error when he rounds off Pi to the 10th decimal place?

ii) Since Pi has an infinite decimal expansion, it isn’t even possible, much less practical, to write down the exact ratio.

iii) Concrete objects approximate numerical ratios. No concrete object precisely exemplifies an abstract numerical universal.

“Why doesn't the Bible say anything about electricity, about DNA, or about the actual age and size of the universe? What about a cure for cancer?”

Why doesn’t the Bible have a recipe for chocolate chip cookies?

If God were benevolent, he’d want us to eat chocolate chip cookies. So either God is able, but unwilling, to give us an inspired recipe for chocolate chip cookies—in which case he’s evil—or else he’s willing, but unable—in which case he’s impotent.

“Millions of people are dying horribly from cancer at this very moment, many of them children. When we fully understand the biology of cancer, this understanding will surely be reducible to a few pages of text. Why aren't these pages, or anything remotely like them, found in the Bible? The Bible is a very big book.”

i) The Bible doesn’t offer a cure for answer because the Bible offers a cure for sin. The Bible treats the underlying cause of natural and moral evil, not the symptoms.

ii) It’s an example of how frivolous Harris is that he even comes up with this demand. Clearly he’s made no attempt to think through what it would mean to give an Iron-age people the cure for cancer.

The technicalities of a scientific explanation would be unintelligible to an Iron-age people. There wouldn’t even be a preexisting vocabulary to express the idea.

And even if it could be expressed, the technology would be absent to implement the explanation.

Let’s take one more example of his reasoning:

“I defy anyone to come forward with the evidence that puts the Biblical God or the Quranic God on fundamentally different footing than the gods of Mt. Olympus.”

http://www.salon.com/books/int/2006/07/07/harris/index1.html

This is alike a man who stands in front of Niagara Falls and dares anyone to find a source of water.

“Water? What water? I don’t see any water?”

There’s a vast body of apologetic literature in which abundant evidence is given to distinguish one religious claim from another.

Harris trumpets his ignorance in the face of the evidence, not in the absence of evidence.

Tuesday, July 11, 2006

Liar, Liar...

Bob L. Ross' downward spiral continues. I know I said I would not respond, but it would be unloving not to respond when a man of Bob L. Ross rapidly deteriorating good reputation is openly lying about those with whom he disagrees and there is irrefutable evidence to show it, if only for it to serve as a witness against him and call him to repent. Here, as you will see, he has most certainly lied. There is no other word for this behavior.

Bradley's primary doctrine is the same as the current crop of Hybrid Calvinists -- namely, "born again before faith," or "regeneration precedes faith." This is the same "direct operation" palabber taught by the pedo-regenerationist theologians Shedd, Berkhof, and R. C. Sproul, and other preachers such as James White, Scott Morgan of the Founders, Gene Bridges, Tom Schreiner of the Southern Seminary, and others who advocate "Reformed" theology according to the Berkhof theology book.

None of them has given evidence that they believe that the Word of God is an instrumentality in the "quickening" work of the Spirit in regeneration or the New Birth, contrary to the Creedal Calvinism of all the Calvinistic Confessions of Faith.

http://www.carthage.lib.il.us/community/churches/primbap/BradleyProgressive.html


Now, here are some representative quotes from just about all the folks he names in the portion emphasized:

1. R.C. Sproul: Sproul does speak of regeneration being the direct act of the Holy Spirit. However he says,

"God's call is made effectual by the Word and the Spirit. It is important to see that the Word and the Spirit are here conjoined as two vital factors of regeneration. The Holy Spirit is not working apart from the Word or against the Word, but with the Word. Nor is the Word working alone without the presence and power of the Spirit.


The call referred to in effectual calling is not the outward call of the gospel
that can be heard by anyone within range of the preaching. The call referred to here is the inward call, the call that penetrates to and pierces the heart, quickening it to spiritual life. Hearing the gospel enlightens the mind, yet it does not awaken the soul until the Holy Spirit illuminates it and regenerates it. This move from ear to soul is made by the Holy Spirit. This move is what accompanies God's purpose of applying the benefits of Christ' work to the elect. (Grace Unknown: The Heart of Reformed Theology, p.190 -91, 2000 edition).

How is this evidence that “none of them has given evidence that they believe the Word of God is an instrumentality in the Spirit’s work of regeneration?"

2. Here is Shedd on regeneration in general:

In this manner, prayer for the instantaneous gift of re­generating grace harmonizes with the gospel-call to immediate faith and repentance. Faith and repentance naturally arid necessarily result from regeneration. Whoever is re­generated will believe and repent.1 To pray therefore for instantaneous regeneration is, virtually, to pray for instan­taneous faith and repentance, and vice versa. He who prays: "Help thou mine unbelief; take away the stony heart, and give the heart of flesh," prays that God would " renew and powerfully determine the will," which is the definition of regeneration. At the same time, prayer for regenerating grace must not be substituted for the net of faith and repentance. The direction is: " Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ." This is the Biblical answer to the question : " What must I do to be paved ?" But when the convicted person discovers that the act of faith is hindered and prevented by the blindness of his understanding, and the bondage of his will to sin, and asks if he may implore the "enlightening and quickening energy of the Holy Spirit, to persuade and enable him to embrace Jesus Christ, freely offered in the gospel" (S. C., 31), he is to be answered in the affirmative. In imploring the regenerating grace of the Holy Spirit, he is " striving to enter in at the strait gate ; " he is endeavoring to believe on the Lord Jesus Christ. The act of faith in the blood of Christ, in its own nature^ is simple and easy. "My yoke is easy, and my burden is light," Matt. 11:30. But considered in reference to the pride and self-righteousness of the natural heart, faith is impossible without regeneration. Hence the frequent state­ment in Calvinistic creeds, that man needs to be persuaded and enabled to this act.*1 The regenerate child, youth, and man, believe· and repent* immediately. The regenerate infant believe· and repent· when his· faculties will admit of the exercise and manifestation of faith and repentance. In the latter instance, re­generation ib potential or latent faith and repentance.

«Westminster Confession, VII. iii.; VIIL riiL ; IX. iv.; X. i.; XIV. L Larger Catechism, Q. 33; Q. 59; Q. 67; Q. 73.

3. Here is Shedd on means:

In this manner, prayer for the instantaneous gift of re­generating grace harmonizes with the gospel-call to immediate faith and repentance. Faith and repentance naturally and necessarily result from regeneration. Whoever is re­generated will believe and repent.1 To pray therefore for instantaneous regeneration is, virtually, to pray for instan­taneous faith and repentance, and vice versa.

Moreover, he writes that in the midst of discussing prayer and preaching and its vital role in the effectual call! So it seems that he doesn't say any of this without first discussing what? Answer: instrumentality!

He writes:

While regeneration is a sovereign act of God according to election, it is an encouraging fact both for the sinner and the preacher of the word that God's regenerating grace is commonly bestowed where the preparatory work is per­formed. This is the rule, under the gospel dispensation. He who reads and meditates upon the word of God is ordinarily enlightened by the Holy Ghost, perhaps in the very act of reading, or hearing, or meditating. "While Peter yet spake these words, the Holy Ghost fell on all them which heard the word," Acts 10 : 44. He who asks for regenerating grace may be regenerated perhaps in the act of praying. God has appointed certain human acts whereby to make ready the heart of man for the divine act. Without attentive reading and hearing of the word, and prayer, the soul is not a fit subject for regenerating grace.


http://www.monergism.com/thethreshold/articles/onsite/Shedd_Regeneration.html

How is this then “no evidence" that he believed the Word of God is an instrumentality in the Spirit’s work of regeneration? Mr. Ross has read Shedd on infant regeneration and then read that back into what he states about those not regenerated in infancy.

Incidentally, notice that Shedd does not have the infants growing into adult.

The regenerate child, youth, and man, believe· and repent* immediately. The regenerate infant believe· and repent· when his· faculties will admit of the exercise and manifestation of faith and repentance.

Rather, as soon as they are able, the repent and believe! What's more, they are, presumably "covenant children" and so are exposed to what? The instrumentality of the Word of God, prayer, instruction, and most importantly the gospel!

Now, what is the other truth of this? That those who do not repent and believe as soon as they are able are were not regenerated in infancy! Ergo, there is nothing here that leads to the Hardshell doctrine, for in Hardshellism an infant (or an adult) can live until adult / senior adult, even near his death and still not convert!

I'd further add that the
Princeton tradition of Presybterianism itself has stated by Archibald Alexander in Thoughts on Religious Experience (London: Banner of Truth Trust, 1967), pp. 13-14.:

"The education of children should proceed on the principle that they are in an unregenerate state, until evidences of piety clearly appear, in which case they should be sedulously cherished and nurtured. . . . Although the grace of God may be communicated to a human soul, at any period of its existence, in this world, yet the fact manifestly is, that very few are renewed before the exercise of reason commences; and not many in early childhood.

Clearly, Mr. Ross is taking the exception (infant regeneration) in Presbyterianism and reading it as the rule (applicable to non-infants). This is considered to be highly unusual and is in the realm of speculation according to their theologians. Does Mr. Ross ever note this? NO. Furthermore, how is Presbyterian or Dutch Reformed theology on infant salvation at all germane to Reformed Baptist issues? The LBCF2 already includes a line about elect infants.

Elect infants dying in infancy are regenerated and saved by Christ through the Spirit; who worketh when, and where, and how he pleases; so also are all elect persons, who are incapable of being outwardly called by the ministry of the Word.


4. Tom Schriener.

Here, he talks about evangelism itself:

http://stream.sbts.edu:9037/ramgen/collconf2003/Rainer.rm

From beginning to end it is about instrumentality.

and

Regeneration means that one has been born again or born from above (John 3:3, 5, 7, 8). The new birth is the work of God, so that all those who are born again are “born of the Spirit” (John 3:8 ESV here and henceforth). Or, as 1 Pet 1:3 says, it is God who “caused us to be born again to a living hope” (1 Pet 1:3). The means God uses to grant such new life is the gospel, for believers “have been born again, not of perishable seed but of imperishable, through the living and abiding word of God” (1 Pet 1:23; cf. Jas 1:18). Regeneration or being born again is a supernatural birth. Just as we cannot do anything to be born physically—it just happens to us!—so too we cannot do anything to cause our spiritual rebirth.

I would ask how it is that Dr. Schriener has given no evidence that he affirms that the Word of God is an instrumentality in the "quickening" work of the Spirit in regeneration?

See:

http://www.9marks.org/CC/article/0,,PTID314526%7CCHID598016%7CCIID1731702,00.html

5. James White:

As if that wasn’t enough, Dr. White dropped a not so subtle hint toward Charles and Mr. Ross on 3/6/06:

What's Unclear About These Words?

It's been a few weeks since the last Scripture memorization text, so I thought it would be good to allow Jesus' words, spoken in direct response to those who objected to His teachings regarding faith and disbelief, speak again:

"No one can come to Me, unless the Father who sent Me draws him; and I will raise him up on the last day. "It is written in the prophets, 'And they shall all be taught of God.' Everyone who has heard and learned from the Father, comes to Me." (John 6:44-45)

Some texts are unpopular because they go against what is "comfortable." Men's traditions serve as a lens through which people read the words of Jesus, and these often get filtered out in the process. You've heard much about John 6:44; you know it completely undercuts the common views of most man-centered evangelicals and continues the thread begun earlier in the discourse regarding God giving the elect to Christ who then undertakes to be their perfect Savior. You know you have to eisegetically insert a break into the text to make those who are raised up on the last day a different group than those who are drawn. The advantage of memorizing verse 45 with verse 44, however, lies in this: v. 45 not only continues the theme of the preceding passages, in so doing it ties 44 in for us and once again closes the door to the many attempts men concoct to escape the meaning. Jesus has just said He will raise up those drawn to Him by the Father, and he then provides a scriptural basis. "They shall all be taught of God" is a rephrasing of being "drawn by the Father." Drawing involves knowledge, revelation. God is the the only source of this "teaching." Just as only the Father can draw, so only the Father can teach. But just as giving (v. 37) and drawing lead, infallibly, to coming, so to this teaching (since it is just another way of referring to drawing) leads to the same perfect result: the coming of all those who experience it to Christ. True regeneration never takes place in a vacuum; true faith cannot exist without an object. Just as one is drawn to the Son, so one learns from the Father. This learning involves true, saving faith in the only one who can save, Jesus Christ. Word and Spirit, together, inseparable, triune work of salvation! All glory, laud and honor!

See: http://www.aomin.org/index.php?itemid=1276

Because it still wasn’t enough, apparently, he posted this:

What I Believe About Regeneration

1. Those whom God hath predestinated unto life, he is pleased in his appointed, and accepted time, effectually to call, by his Word and Spirit, out of that state of sin and death in which they are by nature, to grace and salvation by Jesus Christ; enlightening their minds spiritually and savingly to understand the things of God; taking away their heart of stone, and giving unto them a heart of flesh; renewing their wills, and by his almighty power determining them to that which is good, and effectually drawing them to Jesus Christ; yet so as they come most freely, being made willing by his grace.


2. This effectual call is of God's free and special grace alone, not from anything at all foreseen in man, nor from any power or agency in the creature, being wholly passive therein, being dead in sins and trespasses, until being quickened and renewed by the Holy Spirit; he is thereby enabled to answer this call, and to embrace the grace offered and conveyed in it, and that by no less power than that which raised up Christ from the dead. (LBCF 10:1-2)

“Of his own will begat he, us.” Regeneration and all consequent blessings come to us entirely through the absolute but gracious will of God. He is not bound to give; he may, if he wills, withhold. We have no claim upon God, except the claim of justice; and what would that involve but that he should punish us for our sin? We are felons against the Majesty of heaven. We have forfeited all the rights we ever had under the divine government. The right to punishment is the only right we can now claim upon the footing of justice. Henceforth we are simply in the hands of God awaiting his sentence. He may, if he wills, save the entire human race; if it pleaseth him, he may save none. If so he wills, he may make this mien a monument of mercy, and leave his neighbor to reap the due reward of his works. This is what God has a right to do, and he claims his sovereign prerogative. Are not his own words heard through Scripture like peals of thunder, “I will have mercy on whom I will have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I will have compassion; so then it is not of him that willeth, nor of him that runneth, but of God that sheweth mercy”? There are some who, in their blindness, grow wrathful at this doctrine, as if it were ungracious to mention a fact which it is impossible to disguise; they will almost froth at the mouth when the subject is broached. Well, let them do so, it still standeth firm as a rock and fast as the eternal hills. Jehovah giveth no account of his matters. He doeth as he wills among the armies of heaven, and among the inhabitants of this lower earth. So,-

“Mortals, be dumb; what creature dares
Dispute his awful will?
Ask no account of his affairs,
But tremble, and be still.”



Brethren, you and I, to whom this sovereignty has looked forth through the lattice of grace, can gladly appreciate it. We bless that wonderful, discriminating love which fixed upon us, whilst others were let to go their downward course and perish. The only motive God had to stir up his mercy, was his own will. To us therefore it is precious. Before we ever prayed, before we ever sought his face, his own will, acting spontaneously, brought to us the bounty of his lovingkindness. Now mostly, men who are generous need to have their generosity excited. They will need to be waited upon; appeals must be laid before them; they must sometimes be pressed; an example must lead them on. But “of his own will” God did to us all that has been done, without any incentive or prompting, moved only by himself, because he delighteth in mercy; because his name and his nature are love because evermore, like the sun, it is natural to him to distribute the beams of his eternal grace. “Of his own will begat he us.” Come, my brethren, let us magnify the Lord who loved us when we were dead in trespasses and sins. Let us extol the freeness of that mercy, the goings-forth of which were of old, from everlasting, while we recollect that we deserved it not; that we set ourselves against it; that, when we did know it, we despised it; that, when it was presented to us, we defied it, resisted it, stood out against it many a long year. Oh! when we think of this, I say, let us bow humbly before the throne of the Infinite Majesty, and bless him whose mercy endureth for ever, and whose lovingkindness, like himself, owes nothing to any incentive beyond itself, but is causeless, uncommunicated, existing full and free in the mind of God himself. Because he willed, and according to the dictate of his own good pleasure, did he have compassion upon us.


The benefit we have thus received is described in the next words, “Of his own will begat he us: “ that is to say, we have by divine power been born again. Our first birth was to us our sensitive creation; our second birth, our regeneration, is our second creation. We were made once, and God made us. These bodies are the wonderful fabrics of his skill, and these souls are the emanations of his power. Father of spirits thou art, O God, and we are his offspring, and his alone! But our being made again is as great a work of God, and quite as solely a work of God, quite as entirely the handiwork of God, as our first creation. Of his own will he gave us a new life, and made: us new creatures. Beloved, are we conscious to-night that we are new creatures? Some, perhaps, have doubts about it sometimes, but a man cannot be a new creature and not be conscious of some sort of change; and there must be times, with the most doubtful of the saints, when they are certain and assumed that they are no longer what they were, but have passed from death unto life. Search your own hearts, dear friends; let the prayer that was offered just now to the great Searcher of hearts, and Trier of the reins of the children of man, come from your lips and your hearts, “Search us, O God, and try us! “ Verily, verily, I say unto you, if you have not something more than nature gave you, you will perish. If you are not something higher than the but morality, the most exact discipline, and the most consistent moral behavior can make you, you will never enter into the kingdom of heaven.


“Ye must be born again.” This declaration stands like a sentry at the gate of heaven, thrusting the bayonet in the way to show that, however amiable, moral, upright, and excellent those may be who seek to enter there, they must be born again. Ye must be born again.” Ye dignitaries of the church, ye senators of the nation, ye who wear imperial crowns, and ye who don your coronets, ye must be born again. Ye who have been brought up and dandled upon the knees of piety, ye who have not only offended against the law, ye who have been in your houses a joy and in the world a delight, ye must be born again. It mattereth not who ye are; if ye are born of woman, how can that be clean which cometh of the unclean? Ye must be passed out of the flesh into the spirit, and this must be the work of God himself, or it is nothing worth. It must be a supernatural change, above and beyond all the strugglings and the strivings of the creature. It must be the display of the eternal power of the Holy Spirit, or else where God is you cannot come. Happy should you be, my brethren and sisters, who trust that you have a share in this unutterably precious privilege! “ Of his own will begat he you.” You are twice born. You are God’s children with an emphasis which belongs most to other men. You, though you were dead, are now alive. Though you were carnal you have been spiritualized. Though you were far off, you have been brought nigh; and this is due to the sovereign will of God alone. Bless him, bless him, and humble your hearts before him.


The instrumentality through which this singular change has been wrought in us is clearly stated, “Of his own will begat he us with the word of truth.” Men are not usually saved without the immediate agency of the gospel. Some have said that the Spirit of God always works through the truth, and that the truth is sure to work conviction. The truth, however, is preached, and faithfully preached, to tens of thousands, to whom it conveys not a blessing at all, but is the savor of death unto death. Others have said that the Spirit of God regenerates men apart from the Word of God but this is not told us in Scripture, and is not therefore to be received. But evermore the Word and the Spirit are put together. Scripture does not talk of the Word of God as a dead letter; it says, “The Word of God is quick, and powerful, and sharper than any two-edged sword.” On the other hand, Scripture does not speak of the Holy Spirit as though the Word would work apart from him, but the two are put together, and “ what God hath joined together, let no man put asunder.” My dear brethren and sisters, you who have been begotten again unto a lively hope, was it not through the hearing of the Word, or the reading of it, or the remembrance of some hallowed text which you had almost forgotten? You know it was. Good McCheyne used to say, “Depend on it, it is God’s Word that saves souls, and not our comment upon God’s Word;” and so I believe it is. It is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth. (C.H. Spurgeon, Jan. 5th, 1868)

Let it be known I believe and profess the confessional statement quoted above; let it be known I object to not a word in Spurgeon's exposition. If you encounter someone confused by others about my views, correct them. If you encounter one who claims to know my heart better than I do and who refuses to accept this confession of faith, dismiss him as the addled ranter he is. There is no reasoning with those who will not listen and who profess personal infallibility on matters about which they are completely ignorant or, worse, dishonest.

http://www.aomin.org/index.php?itemid=1297 How is this “no evidence” of believing in the instrumentality of the Word of God in the work of regeneration? This is dated in March, over a month before Mr. Ross libeled Dr. White.

7. Berkhof:

Divine calling and regeneration stand in the closest possible relation to each other. With respect to regeneration several points deserve consideration:

a. Its nature. The word 'regeneration' is not always used in the same sense. Our Confession uses it in a broad sense, as including even conversion. At present it has a more restricted meaning. In the most restricted sense it denotes that act of God by which the principle of the new life is implanted in man, and the governing disposition of the soul is made holy. In a slightly more comprehensive sense it designates, in addition to the preceding, the new birth or the first manifestation of the new life. It is a fundamental change in the principle of life and the governing disposition of the soul, and therefore affects the whole man,

It is completed in a moment of time, and is not a gradual process like sanctification. Through it we pass from death into life,

It is a secret and inscrutable work of God that is never directly perceived by man, but can be known only by its effects.

b. Its author. God is the author of regeneration. Scripture represents it as the work of the Holy Spirit,

Over against the Arminians we maintain that it is exclusively the work of the Spirit of God, and not in part the work of man. There is no co-operation of God and man in the work of regeneration, as there is in the work of conversion. Moreover, it should be said that regeneration in the most restricted sense of the word, that is, as the implanting of the new life, is a direct and immediate work of the Holy Spirit. It is a creative work in which for that very reason the word of the gospel cannot very well be used as an instrument. It may be said that

Jas. 1:18 "Of his own will he brought us forth by the word of truth, that we should be a kind of firstfruits of his creatures. (James 1:18)"

and

I Pet. 1:23 "having been begotten again, not of corruptible seed, but of incorruptible, through the word of God, which liveth and abideth. (1 Peter 1:23)"

prove that the word of preaching is used as an instrument in regeneration, but these passages refer to regeneration in a broader sense, as including the new birth. In that more inclusive sense regeneration is undoubtedly wrought through the instrumentality of the Word.

So, Berkhof has merely stated that the actual action involved in itself belongs to God. This is the immediate working, the most narrow sense. However, preaching is most certainly involved when we include conversion itself as its result. How is this a denial of means on his part?

Here’s another statement from Berkhof:

While we distinguish two aspects of the calling of God, this calling is really one. The internal call is really the external call made effective by the operation of the Holy Spirit. It always comes to the sinner through the Word of God, savingly applied by the operation of the Holy Spirit, I Cor . 1:23, 24. (http://www.ccel.org/pipeline/1-html/5-berkhof-summery/Berkhof%2019.htm )

So, right there, Berkoff affirms the instrumentality of the Word of God. Yes, he does affirm infant regeneration, but so did James Boyce. He also presents infant regeneration as the exception not the rule.

How is this not evidence that Berkhof affirmed that the Word of God is an instrumentality in the "quickening" work of the Spirit in regeneration or the New Birth? Is it because he elsewhere affirms that infants are regenerated? If so, that is a separate issue. Mr. Ross needs to learn to separate the issues. When refuted on the views of paedobaptist theologians with respect to regeneration in non-infants, he has to run away and talk about infant regeneration as if that refutes what is said about adults. But, in that case, any argument infant regeneration is a highly caveated argument. How then does citing beliefs about infant regeneration constitute a refutation of regeneration preceding faith in non-infants?

8. Myself:

Regeneration is attended by the Word of God and gospel truth in all those not dying in infancy. It is monergistic. It precedes faith. It is attended by sorrow for sin, repentance, and faith, but these are its effects, not its efficient cause.

See: http://triablogue.blogspot.com/2006/04/charles-and-bob-l-ross-vs-scripture.html

I’ll make this easy for him: When I say “regeneration precedes faith,” I am simply stating that their relationship causal and logical, if it is temporal it implies nothing of the interval, and I would affirm it in the limiting case of John the Baptist, but, by the same token I’m not completely convinced of the classic text for that. The ordinary means (that for adults and children of competency in understanding) always is via the accompaniment of the Word of God and the calling to mind of other circumstances. I agree with Boyce on this, except in his third and possibly his second limiting case.

From here:

http://triablogue.blogspot.com/2006/04/can-he-possibly-grow-more-incohrent.html

Here is the illustration I used:

Regeneration is to faith what birth is to crying and breathing. As a new baby cries and breathes on its own when it is born, so the man regenerated by the power of the Spirit working through the gospel believes and is justified.

http://triablogue.blogspot.com/2006/04/tulip-of-calvinism-in-light-of-history.html

How, pray tell, can anybody conclude that I have given “no evidence” that I believe the Word of God is an instrumentality in the Spirit’s work of regeneration, when I plainly stated to Mr. Ross exactly the contrary? I have both affirmed the necessity of instrumentality in regeneration, and I have stated that I confine infant regeneration only to those dying in infancy, not those surviving from infancy into childhood, though I find Boyce's inference from John the Baptist plausible, but speculative.

I would add that this is exactly why I posted those words they way I did in my last direct response to him. I knew he would misrepresent me. He has not disappointed. I have now successfully caught him in a lie. Now, do you see why I mentioned him under the statements of Titus 3:10 -11?

Reject a factious man after his first and second warning, knowing that such a man is perverted and is sinning, being self-condemned.




The Fallacy of Reification

I've taken a lot of flack about how I view logic et. al., in my recent debate with Dan Barker. Basically, the charge being leveled is that I committed the fallacy of reification. On some atheist discussion boards we're told that "Manata thinks logic is a THING." And, "Manata didn't see how Barker refuted him because Barker pointed out that logic isn't a thing."

Now, I thought I had responded to Barker's claim in the debate quite appropriately. I actually didn't spend much time rebutting it because it is actually a very ignorant charge to level at me. I simply pointed out that to simply say "logic exists" is not to commit the fallacy of reification. Indeed, the fallacy applies in my situation only if a sort of nominalism is adhered to. But one can't just *assume* nominalism and then, without benefit of argument, accuse another of reifying certain entities. Furthermore, no examples, either by Barker or by the amateur internet atheologians, are forthcoming in showing how, exactly, I committed this fallacy. Since so many atheists thought that I committed this fallacy I thought I'd write a post dealing specifically on the fallacy of reification. Furthermore, I will show by quoting from either respected atheists or respected philosophy and logic texts, that I committed no such fallacy.

Now then, what is the fallacy of reification? Morris Engel in his respected book With Good Reason defines this fallacy (aka, the fallacy of hypostatization) as treating "abstract terms as if they were concrete ones. Frequently we ascribe human properties to them" (124). Interestingly, a frequent example (e.g., Engel's text) of this fallacy is when evolutionists tell us that "nature selects" certain traits. The "Skeptic Files also agrees with the above when it defines this fallacy:

REIFICATION

Description: To reify something is to convert an abstract concept into a concrete thing. Reification is a Fallacy of Ambiguity. Reification is also sometimes known as a fallacy of "hypostatization".

Now, no evidence is put forth showing how I did the above. Why is it claimed, then, that I commit this particular fallacy. Well, it's simply because I say that "logic exists." Now, if one's ontology commits him to the view that the only entities which exist are concrete particulars, then when they hear me saying "logic exists" they hear me saying "logic is a concrete particular." Or, if one's ontology holds that only entities like rocks, trees, atoms, and neurons exist, then when one hears me say that logic exists then they hear me saying that logic is like a rock, or something. Therefore we can see that this fallacy is partly determined by one's ontological commitments. Thus when one hears me say that logic is an entity, it is assumed, because one holds to a materialist ontology, that I'm reifying logic, since only things like cake, cars, and cheetahs, are 'entities.'

We are told that we cannot call logic an entity. But this simply begs the question against the realist. We are told that logic "is not a thing" (to quote Barker). But all of the above trades on what ontological scheme one holds to. Given my particular view of ontology it is perfectly alright for me to refer to logic as an entity, and not commit the fallacy of reification. This is because I do not hold that to exist, or to be an entity, or to be a thing, is to be something like a small, hard, impenetrable marble. Am I within my rights to do so? Well, the Oxford Companion To Philosophy sides with me on this issue when it tells us that,

"'Thing,' in its most general sense, is interchangeable with 'entity,' or 'being' and is applicable to any item whose existence is acknowledge by a system of ontology, whether that item be particular, universal, abstract, or concrete. In this sense not only material bodies but also properties, relations, events, numbers, sets and propositions are - if they are acknowledge as existing - to be accounted 'things'" (p. 871).


Likewise, The Cambridge Companion To Philosophy (CCP) rightly notes that, "an object lacking spatio-temporal properties, but supposed to have being, to exist" is referred to as an "abstract entity" (p.3). Therefore we see that the fallacy of reification "turns largely on criteria of ontological commitment" (CCP, 409). Therefore, upon analysis, the reason this charge has been leveled at me is because the one who levels it holds to a certain ontological commitment which disallows anything that is not, say, marble-like, to be said to exist. But, given my ontological commitment, I've committed no such crime against logic. Therefore, without the ontological debate proceeding this charge, then all this charge amounts to is a question begging argument against the realist. Only if my ontology is disproved could someone say that I've reified said entity.

Now, I'm a theist, and so that automatically gets me labeled as someone who is deficient in his reasoning abilities. And so when I call logic an entity that is just more evidence that theists are stupid, because an entity is something like a rock, and so I'm saying that logic is something one could stub his toe on. But what happens when we put forth a couple atheists who maintain the same position on this view as I? Let me put forth two such paradigms of enlightenment: Michael Martin and Bertrand Russell.

Michael Martin, in his paper "Does Logic Presuppose God", tells us that,

"Second, although some atheists have been materialists there is no reason why they must be and, indeed, many philosophical trained atheists are not. Many modern atheists assume a pluralistic ontology in which material entities comprise only one kind of entity in their ontology. Bertrand Russell, for example, was an atheist but believed in abstract mathematical entities."

And in his reply to Michael Butler Michael Martin tells us,

"Does Butler add anything to Frame's position? Yes, he does. He attacks TANG by wrongly assuming that I am committed to materialism. Maintaining that materialism cannot give an account of logic, he says that I as an atheist cannot. But although all materialists are atheists, not all atheists are materialists. Indeed, many atheists have a pluralist ontology. For example, some atheists believe that neither mental events nor numbers can be reduced to material entities. I am not a materialist. I do not know whether mental events are reducible to brain states--the question is still open for me--and I certainly do not think that the principles of logic are so reducible."


Now would the neophytes on the Infidel Guy forums tell Michael Martin and Bertrand Russell that they are committing the fallacy of reification? Would Dan Barker tell Michael Martin and Bertrand Russell that "they are silly" for saying "logic (or numbers) is an entity" because "logic (or numbers) are not things, there's no capital L (or N) floating around out there." Are we to assume that these atheists think the famed Michael Martin thinks that logic is some physical "thing" which "floats around" in the sky? If so, I ask them to rightly call them on the carpet for their "stupidity." If not, then on what basis do they level this charge at me? Indeed, even the famed "Secular Web" applies this fallacy in the exact opposite direction than the atheists who have complained about my logical sins. We read,

Reification / Hypostatization

Reification occurs when an abstract concept is treated as a concrete thing.

"I noticed you described him as 'evil'. Where does this 'evil' exist within the brain? You can't show it to me, so I claim it doesn't exist, and no man is 'evil'."


Here we see that the Secular Web treats evil as an existent thing. The fallacy is committed by the likes of our sophomoric atheist friends who say that since evil isn't some rock-like entity, then it can't exist!

In conclusion we note that the atheist objector is actually naïve about his subject matter. He uncritically assumes an ontological position, does not argue for that position, and then assumes, without benefit of argument, that his position is true; thus allowing him to charge me with this logical crime. We further note that it is entirely appropriate to speak of logic as an object, thing, or entity given our ontological commitment. We have further seen that their childhood heroes, Michael Martin and Bertrand Russell, speak the same way I do yet the mocking is strangely silent when it comes to them. If I'm a "dumb idiot" then so are they (on this issue). Michael Martin can be reached by phone and I suggest that they call him up and tell him how dumb he is. Lastly, we should note, that given their ontological schema they are consistent in saying that I have reified these items. But, let's note that they need to be consistent and deny the existence of: logic, numbers, proposition, sets, etc. If they do not deny the existence of these entities then they are part of their ontology and, as we have read, a member of one's ontology is properly called an object, thing, or entity. Therefore to mock me they must become anti-realist with respects to the above. Suffice it to say, that's a big pill to swallow but since it's not the purpose of this post to argue for a realist take on the above I'll leave it at that.

Show me!

Daniel Morgan said:

“That isn't what I said -- I pointed out that our very existence demands at least one substance, and from there, additional substances ought to be substantiated, which you disagree with--you think I'm being a "card sharp" again, it appears.”

This would be okay unless you tacitly identify the primary substance as matter, and then demand a special burden of proof for “additional” substances.

“Second, if I can't show your perception on a screen, it doesn't mean physicalism is unfalsifiable, simply that I don't know if that particular aspect of the mind can be rendered into an observable phenomenon. Feeling the heat on your face, and somehow conveying that as an observation to others, requires transferring it to another medium (telling them in words, or replicating the experience for them by forcing them to experience it). Experiencing our own mind (feeling the heat from it) may not be reducible to some simple physical description, but that doesn't mean it isn't correlated by these ‘potential graphs’ I was describing which monitor brain activity.”

The disconnect isn’t limited to perception generated by an external stimulus. It’s limited to mental states generally, whether it’s a percept or dream or memory or interior monologue or unadorned idea. None of our thought-content is accessible to scanning technology.

“Third, as I just explained, you can indeed make a graph of the electrochemical potentials and correlate them to what you report that you feel. In that sense, we can ‘show’ the physical mechanism causing you to ‘feel’. Your feeling is itself a physical mechanism, just another step in the causal chain of biochemistry.”

What you’ve done is to graph the effect of cognition, not the underlying cause.

“Why should we assume, if the physical mechanism of pain is granted, that there is no physical mechanism of perception?”

A dualist doesn’t deny that perception in general or pain in particular may often have a physical component. The problem lies in reducing pain or perception to a physical mechanism.

I can dream of being in pain in the absence of any external, pain-inducing stimulus.

“You are not explaining what properties of the immaterial confer perception, any more than you claim that a physicalist explains the properties of matter that give rise to consciousness. It's an argument from ignorance for both of us -- if neither can give a satisfactory explanation, do we each claim victory?”

Several problems with this reply:

i) I can know what mental properties are irrespective of what role they play in relation to sensory perception. I can identify their existence apart from my identification of their function.

ii) I’m less concerned with their relation to perception than I am with their relation to conception.

iii) Likewise, one could be ignorant of the relation between mind and matter without being ignorant of mind and matter, irrespective of their interrelation.

“If you know much about these algorithms, you know that they aren't perfectly random, by dint of the limitations of machine language.”

That misses the point of the illustration. You could have a randomized result which is the product of a deterministic process. There’s no logical relation between determinism and rationality.

Even if the laws of nature were deterministic from top to bottom, that doesn’t select for true beliefs.

“So you're saying that rationality isn't itself a function of physical laws?”

That’s right. Physical laws are impersonal and unreasoning. How could rationality be a function of a mindless process?

At best that could only occur if there were a mind behind the mindless laws of nature.

“Show me rationality without them. You can't. Show me a mind which isn't underwritten by the very much deterministic laws of nature.”

There are different ways of answering this question. But, to take one example, in order for mental states to be underwritten by the laws of physics, mental states would have to have physical properties. Otherwise they would not be subject to the laws of physics.

Now, a thought of blue is not a blue thought. A thought of chocolate is not a chocolate thought. A thought of noise is not a noisy thought. A thought of perfume is not a fragrant thought. A thought of velvet is not a velvety thought.

Moreover, one can only think of a physical state if one’s reasoning process is not, itself, a physical state.

A physical state is non-referential. A rock has no truth-value.

A petroglyph can have truth-value because a rational agent used the rock as a medium of communication between one mind and another.

The triple-decker universe

Critics of the Bible like to belabor the triple-decker universe. This overlooks a number of considerations.

1.The Bible employs a double-decker formula (e.g. Gen 2:4) as well as triple-decker formula (e.g. Exod 20:4).

Given this stylistic variety, there is no reason to privilege the triple-decker formula over and above the double-decker formula.

2.Why do Bible writers sometimes depict the world with upper and lower stories? The reasoning is pretty straightforward.

The Bible writers have created a mental space in order to segregate and assign different agents to different dwelling-places.

Unlike fish and birds, men are land-dwellers. So their dwelling-place occupies the horizontal dimension.

The Hebrews also believed in the afterlife. So where so they put the dead? The underworld or netherworld is simply a figurative extension of ancient burial customs, with subterranean crypts.

A classic illustration is Ezk 32:17-32

The Hebrews also distinguish between sea level and what’s below sea level.

Guess what? We moderns do the very same thing.

So they’ve assigned a place for mortals, and another place for mortificats. Where, then, do you put the immortals?

You can’t go down, because that’s already taken by the dead. And you can’t go across, because that’s taken by the living, so you can only go up.

Hence, the vertical axis is the default position for the immortals.

Here there are two options: mountain peaks (Horeb/Sinai, Paran, Seir, Zion) or the sky.

Human beings don’t live above the treelike, so that’s unoccupied, which makes it a place to “put” God or his angelic court.

Likewise, human beings don’t dwell in the sky, so that’s also vacant.

If the Hebrews took all this literally, they wouldn’t assign the immortals to the mountains and the sky alike.

3.Separating the living, the dead, and the immortals is also related to principles of purity and impurity.

Contact with the dead renders a Jew ritually unclean.

Conversely, God is holy, but we are unholy, so direct contact with God is fatal.

Hence, the Hebrews have a compartmentalized universe to mirror profane and sacred space.

4. As I’ve said before, this can be further stylized in the form of a cosmic temple which is the celestial macrocosm of the terrestrial microcosm.

5.What we have in 1-4 is a cultic cosmology, not a literal cosmology.

It takes its point of departure from certain observable features of the physical world from the perspective a land-dweller, as well as the burial customs of the day, and uses this viewpoint as a springboard to create an iconography of ritual purity and impurity.

Which is More Rational: Christian Theism or Atheism

That was the issue to be resolved in MY DEBATE with Dan Barker which took place 7-10-06, on the infidel guy radio show.

Falling Before a Block of Wood

John W. Loftus said:

Sure there was a fight. I don’t deny it. But there must be a reason why the Jews could so easily switch allegiences every few years back and forth from Elohim to Baal and back. What finally convinced the Jews was the exhile and the prophetic denouncements of the other gods, since the worship of these other gods must’ve been the reason why they went into captivity. If, however, the Jews had believed in Elohim and followed his prophets when they were carried off into captivity, then they would’ve concluded that it was because Baal was the true god and he was angry with them. Their final history was written by the victors of the war, anyway. But we can still see evidences of what they believed in the available text, that’s all. This is still just standard stuff here.

Loftus has the bad case of wanting to have his cake and eat it too. He relies selectively on the Biblical text. He wishes to derive Israel’s beliefs from the text, but then at the same time he tells us that “their final history was written by the victors of the war, anyway.”

Of course, his entire above paragraph is a hindsight speculation (Loftus tends to believe that if he can assert contrary to the inspiration of Scripture that he has successfully argued against it. I suppose there is a sense of security in this). But notice how this assertion differs from Loftus’ previous assertions. That is the way he works; when your first argument is refuted, simply act like that never happened and assert a new version.

At first, Loftus was arguing from the Biblical text (through a series of gross eisegetical readings) that “the Hebrew God is the head of the pantheon.” In other words, he was asserting that this is what the Bible teaches!

Having this statement effortlessly shoved back in his face by Gene, he now portrays a different picture. Now, he tells us, the race between Jehovah and Baal was a close one in the history of the Hebrew religion, but by some fluke Jehovah eventually won and Hebraic history was written accordingly with the appropriate interpretation of the events.

But the entirety of the Biblical literature portrays a completely different account of the events, including writings existent long before the exile. So Loftus’ only option here is to assume a radically liberal view of the dating of Old Testament texts, forcing him into the absolute minority of OT scholarship (not that he would be very concerned about such a description).

So let’s see what will happen next. What will the new version of Loftus’ argument be as it morphs and evolves each time it is crippled? In the meantime, let’s enjoy some subject-appropriate taunt literature from the mouth of Jehovah:

Isaiah 44 6Thus says the LORD, the King of Israel
and his Redeemer, the LORD of hosts:
“I am the first and I am the last;
besides me there is no god.
7Who is like me? Let him proclaim it.
Let him declare and set it before me,
since I appointed an ancient people.
Let them declare what is to come, and what will happen.
8Fear not, nor be afraid;
have I not told you from of old and declared it?
And you are my witnesses!
Is there a God besides me?
There is no Rock; I know not any.”

9All who fashion idols are nothing, and the things they delight in do not profit. Their witnesses neither see nor know, that they may be put to shame. 10Who fashions a god or casts an idol that is profitable for nothing? 11Behold, all his companions shall be put to shame, and the craftsmen are only human. Let them all assemble, let them stand forth. They shall be terrified; they shall be put to shame together.

12The ironsmith takes a cutting tool and works it over the coals. He fashions it with hammers and works it with his strong arm. He becomes hungry, and his strength fails; he drinks no water and is faint. 13The carpenter stretches a line; he marks it out with a pencil. He shapes it with planes and marks it with a compass. He shapes it into the figure of a man, with the beauty of a man, to dwell in a house. 14He cuts down cedars, or he chooses a cypress tree or an oak and lets it grow strong among the trees of the forest. He plants a cedar and the rain nourishes it. 15Then it becomes fuel for a man. He takes a part of it and warms himself; he kindles a fire and bakes bread. Also he makes a god and worships it; he makes it an idol and falls down before it. 16Half of it he burns in the fire. Over the half he eats meat; he roasts it and is satisfied. Also he warms himself and says, “Aha, I am warm, I have seen the fire!” 17And the rest of it he makes into a god, his idol, and falls down to it and worships it. He prays to it and says, “Deliver me, for you are my god!”

18They know not, nor do they discern, for he has shut their eyes, so that they cannot see, and their hearts, so that they cannot understand. 19No one considers, nor is there knowledge or discernment to say, “Half of it I burned in the fire; I also baked bread on its coals; I roasted meat and have eaten. And shall I make the rest of it an abomination? Shall I fall down before a block of wood?”

Monday, July 10, 2006

Modern misreadings of ancient literature

According to Loftus:

“I don't usually comment on science or politics…”

In his case a prudent precaution. His mistake for making an exception to his standing policy.

“...but here's a specific story that speaks to the Biblical story of the Flood”

Does it really?

“Did Noah take these species on the ark or not? If yes, then how did they get here and only here (some of whom are blind)? If no, then how did they survive the Flood?”

How does this speak to Noah’s flood? According to the Biblical account:

1. The command was not to take in every “species,” but a select number of natural kinds. “Species" is a modern taxonomical category.

2.In context, it obviously had reference to natural kinds existing before the flood, not to every modern species.

3.It did not take in every natural kind, but only birds and land animals.

4.Apropos 1-3, the text does not commit to the proposition that every modern species survived the flood.

5.The Biblical text is also silent on the state of prediluvian biogeographical distribution or natural barriers.

This is a textbook illustration of unbelievers who generate pseudoproblems by a systematically anachronistic overreading of the original text.

Comparative cosmogony

“For an Evangelical scholar who agrees that what the ancients believed about the days of creation and the shape of the cosmos was indeed based on pre-scientific modes of thought, see Genesis by Dr. John H. Walton (NIV Application Commentary, 2002).”

—John Loftus

“As we have seen above, there is no piece of literature extant from Mesopotamia that presents itself as an account of creation. Therefore, there is nothing comparable to the creation account of Genesis in terms of literary genre. The similarities between the Enuma Elish are too few to think that the author of Genesis was in any way addressing the piece of literature we know as Enuma Elish.”

—John Walton, Ancient Israelite Literature in Its Cultural Context: A Survey of Parallels Between Biblical and Ancient Near Eastern Texts (Zondervan 1990), 34.

“We are terribly ill-informed regarding the history of either Mesopotamian or biblical creation accounts. This makes the argument based on chronological sequence null and void. We cannot say for certain that the traditions preserved by the Israelites are any less ancient than the traditions preserved by the Babylonians,” ibid. 36.

“The only evidence that can be produced to support the case for Israelite borrowing is the similarities we have already identified. These are hardly convincing, in that most of the similarities occur in situations where cosmological choices are limited. For example, the belief in a primeval watery mass is perfectly logical and one of only a few possibilities. The fact that the Babylonians and Israelites use similar names, Tiamat and tehom, is no surprise, since their respective languages are cognates of one another,” ibid. 37.

Hebrew Polytheism

John Loftus has now changed the goalposts of his argument a third time. At first, he asserted that the texts clearly state that God has a corporeal body. Then, having been answered on his own terms, he changed his argument in order to question whether or not the text clearly states that God is incorporeal. Now, he has changed to state that the text teaches that God is one of a Pantheon.

Now, to be fair, I usually see this kind of absurdity at Trekbbs.com or Outpost Gallifrey, from folks who just can't seem to understand that the fact that because the text uses several different names, it does not follow that there is more than one God. Even people go by more than one name or title.

Instead, John is arguing from texts like Ps. 86, 93 and others, as well as Jonathan Kirsch's work. However, where is his exegesis of these texts? Without that, we are left with an armload of assertions without arguments, and a new armload of caveats to his original argument that were not in the original. Moreover, nobody denies that the Jews were polytheistic in the Old Testament. This was the source of their problems. Moses and the faithful, and later the prophets were constantly at odds with the elders and rulers of the people. In 2 Samuel, Elijah tells the people to stop being of two minds, and later God tells Elijah that there are 7000 faithful to Him in the land.

Yes, the Bible does recognize the existence of other gods, in the Old Testament texts. However, Loftus seems to ignore everything that it says about them. The Bible does not state that these are true and living gods. On the contrary, they are cast as vain, destructive, heretical, and those who worship them are worthy condemnation. The exist not a living gods, but as idols and animistic totems without life, without personality. The New Testament seems to assert, as did Justin Martyr, that there were demons that may have existed behind them, but if that is the case, this is hardly a case for a polytheistic pantheon, any more than the existence of angels in heaven makes God the chief god of the many gods. They are God, they are angels, different orders of beings.

Now, if God is one among the pantheon, then does this infer that this is the way the text understands God? No, because that would depend on the point of view of the authors of the text. They would need to come from the kings, apostate priests, false prophets, and/or persons unfaithful to the covenant, not the prophets and others who were faithful to Yavhe alone. Do the authors of these texts come from those unfaithful to the covenant or not? If they come from the faithful, then where is Loftus' argument that the covenant itself is polytheistic?

Glenn Miller summarizes this well:


The Hebrew bible consistently portrays the seemingly ceaseless struggle between the true 'servants of Yahweh' (e.g., Moses and the biblical prophets) and the majority of Israelites--kings, court prophets, Israelite elite, common folk and even large groups of priests--who mixed paganism with true Mosaic religion. The Bible presents monotheism and polytheism as existing side by side in the nation Israel, with God constantly trying (generally unsuccessfully) to call the people away from worthless idols.

The Hebrew bible never hides this inconsistency within Israel from the reader. With this the case in the narrative of the Bible itself, we would fully expect to find inscriptions of a paganized system and syncretistic nature.

"It is in the period of the divided monarchy that the Asherah cult flourished both in Israel and Judah, though its existence before is documented by the command in Ex 34:13, the prohibition of Deut 16:21, and the incident at the threshold of Gideon’s life of service to God, Jud 6:25ff. Rehoboam’s career marks the beginning of this in Judah (I Kgs 14:23). In the north the cult received its greatest momentum from the incentive of Jezebel who was responsible for the presence of “four hundred prophets of Asherah” (I Kgs 18:19). Even a reform-minded king such as Asa (I Kgs 15:13) or later Hezekiah (II Kgs 18:4) was unable to liquidate the movement. It was knocked down, but not knocked out. There was an almost inevitable resurrection even in the wake of reform. Compare son Manasseh’s policy (II Kgs 21:7, even to the point of placing the image in the temple) on the heels of father Hezekiah’s reform (II Kgs 18:4). Apostasy and idolatry just behind revival! What one generation attempts to get rid of a subsequent generation may trot back in, however reprehensible it may be. All too frequently this has been the pattern in the human race. [TWOT, s.v. asherah]

"Asherah poles. One common feature of Canaanite worship and of syncretized Israelite worship on “high places” and in city shrines is the erection of Asherah poles (Judg 3:7; 1 Kings 14:15; 15:13; 2 Kings 13:6). There is some uncertainty about whether these were simply wooden poles erected to symbolize trees, perhaps containing a carved image of the fertility goddess, or part of a sacred grove. The reference in 2 Kings 17:10, which refers to Asherah poles beside “every spreading tree,” seems to indicate that these were poles erected for cultic purposes rather than planted trees. As the consort of El, Asherah was clearly a popular goddess (see 2 Kings 18:19), and her worship is mentioned in Ugaritic texts (1600–1200 b.c.). Her prominent appearance in the biblical narrative indicates that her cult was a major rival to Yahweh worship (see the prohibition in Ex 34:13; Deut 16:21). This explains the number of examples in which Asherah poles are erected and venerated, the strong condemnations of this practice and the depictions of these poles being cut down and burned (Judg 6:25–30; 2 Kings 23:4–7). [BBC, at Deut 12.3]

"We are thus led to the inevitable conclusion that between the foreign pagan practices and the pure monotheism of Yahwism there existed a cult that may be called pagan Yahwism or perhaps more accurately, Yahwistic paganism. Of course in the background was the central monotheistic cult practiced in the Jerusalem Temple by its priests and preached by the Biblical prophets. And some of the kings of Judah--especially Hezekiah and Josiah--made efforts to centralize the monotheistic cult in Jerusalem. But looking at the archaeological evidence, we must conclude that they were less than 100 percent successful. Indeed, until the Babylonian destruction of Judah and the end of the Israelite monarchy in 586 B.C.E., pagan Yahwism was common even in Jerusalem, to say nothing of the rest of Judah." [Ephraim Stern, "Pagan Yahwism: The Folk Religion of Ancient Israel", Biblical Archaeology Review, May/June 2001, vol 27, no. 3, p.28.]

The nation Israel could have produced such syncretistic records in almost any period of its existence. During the very Exodus, they worshipped a golden calf. When Moses was giving the people the great monotheistic law of the Great God, the people were still sacrificing to goal idols (Lev 17.7). The book of Judges is filled with Israel's idolatry--including with Astoreth (e.g.,2.13, 3.7, 6.25). Idolatry and syncretism was rampant--but, importantly, always condemned in the Scripture:

"Several passages in the historical books indicate that images continued to be made in Israel long after Moses’ time (Jgs. 3:19; 8:27; 17:3–6; 2 K. 21:7). These instances do not mean that idolatry had a legitimacy in early Yahwism. The period of the judges was one of blatant lawlessness, and much that cannot be considered normative for Israelite faith and practice occurred then. Solomon’s lapse into idolatry (1 K. 11:4–8) was clearly denounced (vv 9–13). The syncretistic religion of Manasseh cited in 2 K. 21:7 is depicted by the historian as contrary to the spirit of Israelite faith (vv 6–9). Even the bronze serpent that Moses fashioned in the wilderness (Nu. 21:9) became an object of worship (2 K. 18:4). In his reform Josiah removed both the high place at Topheth (2 K. 23:10) and the “horses … dedicated to the sun” that had been installed in the temple (v 11)…The syncretistic expressions of religion that run like a thread through the early history of Israel were ultimately given legitimacy by Jeroboam I, king of the northern kingdom of Israel. The division of the nation into the northern and southern kingdoms posed a serious theological crisis for the northern kingdom. The geopolitical rift brought to the fore the question of access to the cultic center at Jerusalem. Jeroboam understood that if he was to bring stability to his fledgling kingdom, he could allow nothing that would foster the loyalties to the Davidic dynasty that were so deeply ingrained in the minds of the people (1 K. 12:26f). The temple had been built by Solomon the son of David, and Jerusalem was rich with Davidic traditions. Clearly, a new form of religious expression distinct from any association with David would have to be instituted. This was done in a revival of the cult of the golden calf (1 K. 12:28)…The 8th cent b.c. witnessed a resurgence of Israel and Judah. Economic prosperity, unparalleled in their history except for the golden age of David and Solomon, fostered a growing class of wealthy, influential people whose loyalty to the covenant stipulations of Yahweh was at best questionable. The erosion of the strong core of covenant obligation marked the 8th cent and led to the dissolution of the nation. One of the most obvious violations of the covenant standards was the popular religion of the day, a strange syncretism of Yahwism and the symbols and mind-set of pagan idolatry…The situation in the northern kingdom seems to have been particularly dismal. Rites associated with the fertility cults of Canaan were practiced at a number of shrines in Israel (Hos. 4:11–19; Mic. 1:7) and may even have been widespread…The internal sickness affected the southern kingdom of Judah as well, although probably to a lesser degree. Isaiah presents a picture of Judahite syncretism that is remarkably similar to that of Israel (2:8; 57:4–10)." [ISBE, s.v. "idolatry"]

So, why should we be surprised to find this "documented-by-the-bible" paganism, now documented by archaeology? We shouldn't, obviously…

In other words, the revelation of God (as Mosaic monotheism) existed side-by-side with 'stubborn polytheism' among the Israelites. There was no "gradual progression" from polytheism to monotheism. In fact, the story of the bible from Moses to the Babylonian exile is one of degeneration, not 'evolution'--the nation got 'worse', and developed increasing amounts of idolatry, polytheism, and syncretism. For a theorist to assert the contrary (i.e., the position you mentioned of 'from polytheism to monotheism') requires them to explain away many things, including early prohibitions against these aberrations, such as Ex 34:13 and Deut 16:21:

But rather, you are to tear down their altars and smash their sacred pillars and cut down their Asherim 14 —for you shall not worship any other god, for the Lord, whose name is Jealous, is a jealous God— (Ex 34.13f)

You shall not plant for yourself an Asherah of any kind of tree beside the altar of the Lord your God, which you shall make for yourself. 22 “Neither shall you set up for yourself a sacred pillar which the Lord your God hates. (Deut 16.21f)

The standard way of 'explaining away' such verses is to assert (without even semi-compelling evidence today, btw) that they are 'later polemic insertions' by later scribes, in their (later) battle to unseat polytheism. These late monotheists needed some ammunition against the polytheists (in their view) and hence invented these texts to give the appearance of ancient authority to their position. Such a reconstruction is quite unnecessary--given the biblical portrayal of an 'inconsistent Israelite populace'--and is based on questionable (today) source-criticism theories, and labor under the extra evidence requirements of all 'conspiracy and fraud' theories.

[But note that the polytheistic 'majority' doesn't show up after the Exile. The Exile was specifically designed to purge the nation of Judah of its polytheism, and it went a very long way towards doing that. Monotheism did not 'develop' at that point, but only became the majority belief of the returning Jews. Of course, syncretistic elements can still be found during this and later periods (cf. Hengel's documentation of "Hellenism" and studies by others on Jewish magic), but they are much more 'subdued', less vocal, and less pervasive. The pre-Exilic polytheistic/syncretistic majority became a post-Exilic minority after the Exile.]

So, even if the folks of Kuntillet Arjud believed Yahweh had a pagan goddess as a consort (and for that matter, in that same issue of BAR, Uzi Avner argues they that also drew a picture of Yahweh (!!!) and Asherah, with Yahweh portrayed with male genitals!)--quite an unbiblical pair of concepts--this would tell us very, very little that we didn't already know from the bible. But whatever historical positions it implies, that Israelite polytheism 'evolved' into monotheism is not one of them…

As I pointed out to Mr. Loftus before, if he wishes to hold to the Documentary Hypothesis, that includes a specific dating scheme and it includes a set of authors-redactors who come from the exilic/post-exhilic period. On such a dating scheme, which POV would be the POV of those individuals. As Miller points out:

But note that the polytheistic 'majority' doesn't show up after the Exile. The Exile was specifically designed to purge the nation of Judah of its polytheism, and it went a very long way towards doing that. Monotheism did not 'develop' at that point, but only became the majority belief of the returning Jews. Of course, syncretistic elements can still be found during this and later periods (cf. Hengel's documentation of "Hellenism" and studies by others on Jewish magic), but they are much more 'subdued', less vocal, and less pervasive. The pre-Exilic polytheistic/syncretistic majority became a post-Exilic minority after the Exile.


So, in order to maintain his theory, Loftus has to push back the dating of the either the text's sources or the dating of the redaction. If he says that they were redacted, then he must state that they were redacted faithfully and not unfaithfully, in order to successfully sustain the assertion that the texts depict God as chief of a polythestic pantheon and made it past the most likely view of God by the redactors themselves, but this thesis of composition was asserted to attack the faithfulness of the text to its sources, not maintain it, and that the text is setting forth a view of God that is that of the redactors, not necessarily the source texts.