Monday, October 12, 2009

For the love of God

Which is more loving?


“As the post states, the issue is what does God intend. I think it can be simply addressed by asserting that God desires all to be saved on a conditional basis rather than unconditionally. Only if God’s intention is to save all unconditionally, and some remain unsaved, could it be said that God failed to accomplish His intentions. But if God desires and intends for all to be saved conditionally, then he has not failed if some refuse to meet the necessary condition, since his intention is not for them to be saved unconditionally.””

Or this?

“God loves his elect unconditionally and consequently gave His only-begotten Son to be their ransom. We who are loved unconditionally cannot earn that love, either by faith or works. It is simply bestowed upon us out of the riches of his grace (Ephesians 2:7), mercy, and compassion (Romans 9:15).”


  1. "Which is more loving... this or this?"

    I don't know. Love Unites, Doctrine Divides.

  2. Please define "loving." What would be the basis of determining which is more loving? Thanks.

  3. If I might intrude. I will take a stab at defining "loving".

    As I posted and as yet, not published at TurrentinFan's blog, I defined John 3:16 by explaining 1 John 3:16 and then assert that there are only two kinds of people in the world alive today, the Elect of God and reprobates.

    You will know the difference of each's "loving" by the "Way" God so loved the world.

    And what's that way you ask?

    1 John 3:16 is the only way given to God's Elect to love, "loving".