Turner wrote, “If the present/future spiritual/physical view of the kingdom just sketched is valid, discontinuity dispensationalism's bifurcation of repentance in Matthew's gospel and faith in John's … cannot be sustained.”
From a non-dispensational viewpoint, how do explain that although John refers to the concept of repentance more times than any other NT writer other than Luke (i.e., he mentions it 12± times in Revelation), he evidently does not refer to repentance in his gospel which had the purpose of bringing people to eternal life?
Steve,
ReplyDeleteTurner wrote, “If the present/future spiritual/physical view of the kingdom just sketched is valid, discontinuity dispensationalism's bifurcation of repentance in Matthew's gospel and faith in John's … cannot be sustained.”
From a non-dispensational viewpoint, how do explain that although John refers to the concept of repentance more times than any other NT writer other than Luke (i.e., he mentions it 12± times in Revelation), he evidently does not refer to repentance in his gospel which had the purpose of bringing people to eternal life?