If we agree with the ancient Jews that the LXX translation was a faulty translation, then why is such a substandard text part of Holy, Inspired Scripture? Doesn't the New Testament suggest that the LXX was considered not just trustworthy, but even preferred by the Apostles? This is not out of harmony with the testimony of the Early Church, which regarded it as a sound and inspired translation.
As a Bible believing Christian, facing this dilemma was not easy. I felt that by trying to honestly grapple with textual issues, I was questioning the authority of God's Word. This is not at all what I intended. I simply wanted integrity in my Christian faith. With time, as I struggled through some of these facts, I realized I needed to come to Scripture on its own terms, not on my expectations as a twentieth century Westerner. This desire for integrity aided me as I swallowed hard and proceeded to study the canon of the Old Testament.
The Eastern Orthodox Church has been most faithful to the apostles' Old Testament. They still use the LXX and usually base their translations of the Old Testament on it. Without needing objective proof for the veracity of this translation, they have simply held to what the apostles gave them. Their approach to the canon has not been philosophical or deductive, but spiritual, trusting that God established and is now watching over the Church He established.
There are some serious problems with this argument:
1. Needless to say, our extant editions of the LXX are not identical with the 1C editions of the Greek OT which NT authors had at their disposal. Therefore, it’s anachronistic as well as inaccurate to simply correlate one with the other.
2. As NT scholars have pointed out, NT writers don't simply quote the Greek OT verbatim. Rather, they feel free to reword their source. In that event, they don’t treat the wording of the Greek OT as inviolate.
3.To say NT writers quote the Greek OT doesn’t mean they quote the Greek OT exclusively. Some of their quotations are closer to the MT.
4.We also need to distinguish between NT speakers and NT writers. When NT writers quote NT speakers quoting the OT, they tend to use the Greek OT. But they also do so in settings where it’s unlikely that the speaker himself was quoting from the Greek OT. That would only make sense if they were addressing a Greek-speaking audience.
So this is probably a case in which the writer substitutes a different version for the benefit of the reader, in distinction to the original speaker and his immediate audience.
5. Apropos (4), NT writers quote the Greek OT because they’re writing to Greek-speaking Jews and Gentiles. For example the author of Hebrews is addressing Hellenistic Jewish-Christians. Therefore, as a practical necessity, he’s going to use a Greek version of the OT. That’s an unavoidable accommodation to his audience. An exercise in audience-adaptation.
Indeed, his use of the Greek OT may well be ad hominem. Answering them on their own terms by appealing to their own methods and sources.