Sunday, July 02, 2017

Bring the cloak

AskDrBrown

Here's a problem for my cessationist friends. I think all of us agree that we are to obey the last command received unless someone with greater authority comes and overrules that command (or the one who gave the command rescinds it). Agreed? Well, the last commands we have in Scripture regarding the gifts of the Spirit are: to eagerly pursue the gift of prophecy (which is NOT simply inspired preaching); not to forbid speaking in tongues; not to despise prophecies or quench the Spirit but to test prophetic utterances and hold on to the good; and to pray in faith for the healing of the sick. (See 1 Cor 14:1, 39; 1 Thes 5:19-22; Jam 5:14-15.)

So, unless someone can show me in the Word where God Himself rescinded these commands or where He explicitly overruled these commands, I will obey God and pursue these spiritual gifts and empowerments in faith. How about you?


i) That's an interesting argument. But is Brown's principle a reliable generalization? For instance: "When you come, bring the cloak that I left with Carpus at Troas" (2 Tim 4:13).

Is that a standing command to Christians of every generation? After all, we have no record of Paul rescinding that command. And no one with greater authority has overruled his command. 

Should we therefore conduct archeological explorations to discover the whereabouts of Paul's cloak? And if we find it, how do we convey it to the late Apostle? Isn't he out of reach? 

Point is, not every command directed to a particular group of 1C Christians is a command to all Christians for all time. The NT letters are occasional writings that sometimes address topical concerns. 

That's an issue requiring conscientious sifting. On the one hand there's the danger of classifying politically incorrect commands as defunct. That's a tactic of "progressive Christians". On the other hand, some NT commands are timebound (e.g. 2 Tim 4:13). So the need to sift timeless commands from timebound commands is unavoidable. 

ii) Another problem is the difference between natural and supernatural abilities. A natural ability is a resident ability that I can exercise at will. But a supernatural ability is not something I normally have at my disposal. I can't exercise an ability that hasn't been conferred on me. That's beyond my control.

There's also the question of whether the so-called spiritual "gifts" are in fact supernatural abilities which, even if you have them, you can exercise at will. Take revelatory dreams and visions. That's not something a Christian can muster on his own. That's not something he does, but something that's done to him. He's a passive recipient. 

“Pope Bergoglio the Tenacious”

Pope Bergoglio the Tenacious
Pope Bergoglio the Tenacious
Some folks got a kick out of referring to Karol Wojtyla as “Pope John Paul the Great”, as if a few journalistic designations could help to fix a historical understanding. What we’re beginning to see now are the various shapes of the long term effects of “Pope Bergoglio the Tenacious”. He knows he’s making significant changes, effectively undoing things that Pope Wojtlya put into place, and he is consciously acting in such ways as to assure that his mark will be felt far into the future.

Aside from being the pope who has upset the traditional sacramental apple cart, diminishing the once-unique role of “the eucharist” in the Roman Catholic Church by enabling “communion for those who are divorced and remarried without benefit of annulment” in the footnotes of his document, “Amoris Laetitia”, it is becoming clearer that Pope Bergoglio wants to leave his mark in other tangible ways as well:

[“Pope Francis”] has no desire to go down in history as a “transitional” pope. That which he is doing, he wants it to survive his departure. And to make sure of this he is institutionalizing the things dearest to him, he is making them stable, with all the numbers to keep moving forward on their own.

To that end, he is not only stacking the deck of Cardinals who can vote for a like-minded “successor”, but he is also coming up with new “traditions” that future popes will find difficult to stop.

According to the Roman Catholic journalist Sandro Magister, these include:

Saturday, July 01, 2017

When in Rome, do as the modernists do

Ross Douthat Retweeted
Michael B Dougherty @michaelbd  Jun 30
Bracing to watch the Vatican undergo the sexual and cultural revolution of a century in the space of one pontificate


To zieself be true

https://www.thegospelcoalition.org/article/trump-teachers-transgender-students-pronouns

Military service

i) On the face of it, military service seems to be morally problematic. Take volunteers. When you enlist, you sign a blank check. You don't know in advance what the foreign policy will be from one year to the next. You may disapprove of what you're ordered to do. Is it ethical to make an open-ended commitment like that? Especially given the moral stakes of warfare? The snap judgments. And so on. 

ii) However, that must be counterbalanced by another consideration. The justification for national defense is that national defense is a logical and necessary extension of self-defense. Sometimes we lack the individual resources to protect ourselves or our dependents. Say, if we're outnumbered or outgunned. Therefore, self-defense may necessitate pooling our collective resources to mount a common defense. That confers a general benefit.

Assuming that we have a duty to protect our dependents, and in some cases our neighbors, or even strangers, military service is an unavoidable–although not a universal obligation. 

iii) Hence, military service generates moral dilemmas. Conflicting duties or competing goods. Given the dilemma, I think men who find themselves in that predicament are in a situation of diminished moral responsibility. What would ordinarily be wrong is mitigated or exculpated by the moral dilemma. 

That's not carte blanche to follow just any order. It doesn't excuse atrocities. Some actions are intrinsically wrong. But there's greater moral flexibility in that situation than situations where you have one unimpeded duty.  

God's foundling

Traditionally, Calvinists focus on theological metaphors like the New Birth or death in sin to illustrate the helplessness of the lost. A neglected theological metaphor is adoption. Paradigm-examples include God's "adoption" of David and God's "adoption" of Israel. A graphic example is Ezk 16, where a newborn who was left to die is rescued by a passerby. The adoption metaphor may be related to the OT concern for orphans. And it's a major theological category in the NT. 

Take the scenario of an orphanage. The kids are neglected because they don't receive the kind of individualized attention and affection that normal kids do. They have no one to call their own. No one they belong to. No adult who's their frame of reference.

Suppose an orphan like that is adopted by a loving parent or parents. This is like a second life. Although they preexisted their adoption, there's a sense in which life truly begins for them after their adoption. Now they suddenly have the life they longed for. They are showered with blessings. 

In Arminian theology, the blessings of salvation flow from the headwaters of faith. Blessings contingent on the autonomous act of faith. 

In Reformed theology, the blessings of salvation flow from the headwaters of grace. Blessings contingent on the unilateral act of God. Adoption is an image which powerfully illustrates that difference. 

Unconditional election and infant salvation

From a Facebook exchange:

It is clear from the Institutes that Calvin taught double predestination. When, according to Calvin, does God predestine some to salvation and some to damnation? Would the predestined person's age have anything to do with anything? How could one consistently argue something different than double predestination from Calvin?

In and of themselves, election and reprobation are consistent with universal infant salvation. It's just up to God who he chose to elect or reprobate. That can't be inferred merely from the principle of double predestination.

Sounds like having your cake and eating it to. Either election is unconditional or it isn't. Seems to me you're wanting to make it conditional when it makes the doctrine more palatable.

Unclear what you think unconditional election means. The concept of unconditional election is not a restriction or imposition on God. What makes you think unconditional election means God can't elect all those who die before the age of reason, if that's what he wanted to do?

BTW, since you don't know my actual position, it would behoove you to avoid conspiratorial interpretations.

Completely true- God can do what He wants. I personally just find it inconsistent to hold to an unconditional election based solely on God's sovereignty, but then apply a condition to it (the age of reason).

The basic principle of unconditional election is that since all Adam's posterity will be guilty as well as unresponsive to spiritual good apart from grace, there's nothing to distinguish one human from another that accounts for God's choice. God could choose fewer or God could choose more. If everyone is in the same boat, choosing a particular subclass of the total (e.g. all who die before the age of discretion) is perfectly consistent with the unconditionality of election.

There's an ambiguity to how you're using "condition". To take a crazy hypothetical for illustrative purposes, suppose God elected all and only people with green eyes. Would that make it "conditional" election. If the notion is that having green eyes causes, constrains, or impels God to choose people with green eyes, then that would be conditional. If, however, the elect status of green-eyed people is the effect or result of God's choice, then that's not conditional.

Like I said, I would think from an unconditional election point of view, that God is sovereign. He can do what He wants. Not really interested in what He might do. I think he has declared what He will do: he who believes is not condemned. 

Hypotheticals are a way of testing whether a generalization is true or false in principle.

There's an elementary difference between what an individual Reformed theologian believes, and whether his position is a logical implication of Calvinism. Put another way, a difference between what's consistent with Calvinism and what's entailed by Calvinism.

Traditionally, the original rationale for infant baptism was to remove the stain of original sin. Unbaptized babies who died were consigned to hell. That wasn't based on Calvinism. What was the position of Arminian Anglicans like John and Charles Wesley?

Friday, June 30, 2017

“Pope Francis” dismisses Cardinal Müller from top post at “Congregation for the Doctrine of the Faith”

“Pope Francis” dismissed Cardinal Gerhard Müller from his position as “Prefect of the Congregation for the Doctrine of the Faith” (the Inquisition) today – perhaps making sure he gets the right “interpretation” (or maybe, “the left interpretation”) on Amoris Laetitia and no doubt on some of his future doctrinal statements, should he live so long as to be able to make more of them, Lord willing.

This is “Pope Francis” letting go the top doctrinal man in the Vatican. No word as to where he’s going, or who he would be replaced with. Imagine if “Pope John Paul II” had let Ratzinger go after just five years, and replaced him with a liberal “theological watchdog”.

https://rorate-caeli.blogspot.com/2017/06/breaking-exclusive-in-english-pope.html:

CORRISPONDENZA ROMANA and RORATE CÆLI have just learned that His Eminence Cardinal Gerhard Ludwig Müller, Prefect of the Congregation for the Faith since July 2, 2012, has been dismissed by Pope Francis on the exact expiry date of his five-year mandate.

Cardinal Müller is one of the cardinals who sought to interpret Amoris Laetitia along the lines of a hermeneutic of continuity with Church Tradition. This was enough to put him among the critics of the new course imposed by Pope Bergoglio.

Does Molinism make sense?

On Facebook, some folks attempted to critique my post:


I'm not a Molinist, but neither of these are really problems for them. To the first, this is exactly what middle knowledge is meant to solve.

i) That may be what middle knowledge is meant to solve, but positing that God knows the counterfactuals of creaturely freedom is a stipulation rather than a solution. Big difference.

ii) Moreover, the problem is deeper than sheer assertion. As I discuss, Molinism creates an obstacle to divine knowledge of hypothetical or counterfactual choices. 

To the second, Molinism allows for God to determine everything other than free choices. This is presumably enough, since free choices aren't typically the only things that make up the circumstances of other free choices.

How can God determine circumstances that are contingent on choices that God can't determine?

First, what makes the knowledge middle is not its content (many views agree that God knows these counterfactuals), but its being true contingently and without being determined by God.

Now you're resorting to a semantic quibble. To begin with, "middle knowledge" is just a label. I wasn't discussing why the position is thus designated. And there's more to Molinism than middle knowledge.

However, the content is directly germane to the question of whether God can differentiate between possible worlds, on the basis of circumstances, in order to instantiate a world of his choosing. 

Second, theories by their very nature posit principles in order to account for the phenomena they wish to explain. The Molinist seeks to explain how a God could know the outcome of a libertarian free choice, and proposes a theory about the nature of certain counterfactuals to account for this. Sure, you might find their particular proposal indefensible in the long run, or think some other account does a better job (as I do), but you can hardly fault them for following the standard process.

I fault people for making exaggerated claims about the explanatory power of their theory. Molinism doesn't even attempt to explain how God can know the hypothetical/counterfactual choices of libertarian agents. Rather, it takes that possibility for granted. Yet that's a central issue in dispute. So it begs the question.

By directly determining the parts of those circumstances that are not free choices. To say a circumstance is contingent on free choices is not the same as saying it is contingent on only free choices.

If you have a chain of events where each successive event is contingent on a preceding event, and at each fork in the road it could veer off in two or more directions, how does God instantiate any particular trajectory? The circumstances at T1 don't pick out a particular outcome. Depending on how that goes, we come to T2. But the circumstances at T2 don't pick out a particular outcome. And so on and so forth, like a game of chess.

As to their failure to explain how God can have this knowledge, I think it gets ahead of where we are in the dialectic. You don't need to have an explanation for the explanation, before the latter is worth considering. The Molinist starts with the assumption (shared by almost everyone) that God knows all true propositions and guides free human choices. He then proposes that there a class propositions that if known, would enable God to guide our free choices.

i) To begin with, while we can grant the assumptions of an opposing position for the sake of argument, proponents of the opposing position are not entitled to stipulate that we must grant their assumptions. There are many situations in which it is right and proper to challenge the assumptions of the opposing position.

ii) Moreover, you're taking the extreme position that even granting their assumptions for the sake of argument, we are not allowed to challenge the coherence of their position. We must grant that their position is internally consistent.

Those are arbitrary restrictions. 

If the same circumstance could result in two different outcomes because of free choice, then the Molinist's claim is that it would only result in one.

If an agent can choose more than one course of action under identical circumstances, then the circumstances fail to yield a specific result. In that case, God is shooting blind when he instantiates a possible world. He has a range of possible/feasible worlds from which to choose, but circumstances are insufficient to differentiate one outcome from another. 

The knowledge of the counterfactuals was never under question

That's an issue if God is blindfolded when he chooses which option to instantiate, for circumstances are too indiscriminate to select for the desired outcome.

The ability to chose differently doesn't effect God's knowledge of what said creature would choose given the circumstances. Just like your ability to choose differently doesn't effect God knowing what you will choose.

i) I think you mean affect, not effect. If you're going to be patronizing, at least use the right word. 

ii) Actually, there are freewill theists of the Occamist stripe who say it does affect God's knowledge. Soft facts, backtracking counterfactuals.

Foreknowledge doesn't have any causal power.

Red herring.

For the question to work as an objection one would have to assume it does have a causal power - but that sort of theological determinism is (aside from being logically fallacious) exactly what the Molinist solution finds to be unnecessary. Like I said, if this guy would take the time to step outside of his deterministic assumptions and seek to truly understand the view, he wouldn't need to ask this kind of trivial question.

i) I'm always amused by people whose intellectual confidence is in inverse proportion to their intellectual competence. That's a common malady among internet atheists and internet freewill theists. 

ii) Molinism doesn't have a solution.

iii) My argument doesn't presuppose that foreknowledge has causal power (whatever that means). 

God knows all at once, by virtue of his middle knowledge, all the circumstances - those that would be created by free creatures and those that would not be, and then sovereignly chooses to create that world of free choices and circumstances that suit his ends. Thus all circumstances, no matter how they came to be, were chosen by God - all the while leaving libertarian freedom still possible.

That doesn't begin to engage my argument. Once more, if libertarian freedom is defined as the ability to do more than one thing under the same circumstances, then instantiating a particular set of circumstances won't suffice to instantiate a world with any particular set of choices, inasmuch as the choices are causally independent of the circumstances. A given set of circumstances cannot select for a particular outcome. The outcome is radically underdetermined by the circumstances inasmuch as the circumstances don't produce free choices.

This is also very easy to refute.

Behold the beauty of overconfidence. 

(i) That you could do otherwise in a circumstance does not entail that you would do otherwise.

Misses the point. God can only get the world he wants if a given set of circumstances ensures a corresponding set of choices. If, however, a given set of circumstances leaves the agent with more than one available course of action, in response to said circumstances, then how does actualizing circumstances pick out one outcome rather than another? 

(ii) Easy. If God breaks down a car, for example, He changes the circumstances. Lol.

Was that supposed to be clever? 

It's like a game of chess. The countermove depends on the previous move. Each move and countermove open up a new set of forking paths. If many circumstances are caused by free choices, then how can the choices be isolated from the circumstances that God instantiates?

No, I completely get the point. Except x circumstance will in fact lead to only one outcome: choice y. You can repeat that possible world ad infinitum and that outcome would still arise unless the circumstance changed. The choices are not isolated from the circumstances God instantiates, that's the point.

If the same outcome invariably follows from the same antecedent conditions, how do you distinguish that from determinism? On your view, there's no way to tell the difference between fair dice and loaded dice. Even if you roll the same dice a billion times, and get sixes a billion times in a row, that's consistent with fair dice rather than loaded dice.

So a pair of dice is analogous to personal agency how...?

If the dice are fair, each throw is causally discontinuous with the preceding or succeeding throw. Analogous to the freedom to do otherwise under the same circumstances.

A typical explanation of libertarian freedom involves two possible worlds with a shared past. Everything was the same up to the moment of choice, at which point it forks off in opposing directions. More prosaically, holding antecedent conditions the same, divergent outcomes are equally viable.

Thursday, June 29, 2017

A map of the soul

https://www.firstthings.com/web-exclusives/2017/06/a-map-of-the-soul

Hidden In Plain View For $4.99

Lydia McGrew has written a good book on undesigned coincidences, Hidden In Plain View (Chillicothe, Ohio: DeWard, 2017), and you can preorder the Kindle version for $4.99. Here's her definition of an undesigned coincidence:

"An undesigned coincidence is a notable connection between two or more accounts or texts that doesn't seem to have been planned by the person or people giving the accounts. Despite their apparent independence, the items fit together like pieces of a puzzle." (12)

You can read about an example in the first paragraph of my post here.

On legality, morality, and abortion

https://arcdigital.media/on-legality-and-morality-b8f1e24a2d3e

Modularity

One of the challenges to creationism is explaining similarity between different species. 

The evolutionary explanation is generally that they are similar because they share a common ancestor. Mind you, the evolutionary inference is not that straightforward since evolutionists also believe that some similarities developed independently. 

Alternative creationist explanations include common design and common function. Both have some explanatory value, but they are too generic to account for certain kinds of similarities. 

Between about 20-33 min. in this presentation:


Todd Wood reviews the stock explanations, then offers a different proposal. He draws an analogy between genomic modularity and language. 

If you compare two texts in same language, they will share many similarities. Is that because they have a common ancestor? Generally, that's not the explanation.

The reason, rather, is that a language has limited characters (alphabet) and limited vocabulary. Likewise, it has a standard syntax. As a result, two texts have many repeated words and grammatical forms. 

By analogy, genomic modularities are not homologies. Not intermediates but mosaics.

Wood uses a linguistic analogy, but we could also use a musical analogy. Two composition by different Baroque composers will have many similarities because they employ the same rules of musical composition. A common scale, notation, instruments, musical forms, &c.  

Recentering the "freewill" debate

The most salient change I would make, although perhaps not the philosophically most important one, is that I would not now use the phrase ‘free will’. In fact, I would not use even the adjective ‘free’—I would not speak of free actions, free agents, or free choices. Nor would I use the adverb ‘freely’ and the noun ‘freedom’. In my view, these words have little meaning beyond that which the philosopher who uses them explicitly gives them, and yet philosophers persist in arguing about what they do or should mean. They enter into disputes about what “free will” and “free choices” and “acting freely” and “freedom” really are. These philosophers have fallen prey to what I may call verbal essentialism. That is to say, it is essential to their discussions that they involve certain words: ‘free’, ‘freely’, ‘freedom’. … It would be impossible to translate their discussions into language that did not involve those words. Peter van Inwagen, The Harvard Review of Philosophy (2015), 22:16-17. 
http://andrewmbailey.com/pvi/Thoughts_on_Essay.pdf

Calvinist/Arminian debates often go like this: Arminians say they believe in freewill, and they deny that Calvinists believe in freewill. Calvinists typically reply that they believe in freewill, too, they just have a different concept of freewill. But should we frame the debate in terms of freedom, viz. Can agents whose actions are determined or predetermined be "free"?

The problem with that framework is that what philosophers are typically after in this debate is a different question. Not, "Are we free?" but "Are we morally responsible?" 

Now, libertarian freedom is often invoked as a necessary condition for praiseworthy or blameworthy actions. I'm not suggesting that we can avoid the issue of freedom in debating the nature of moral responsibility. 

Yet for analytical clarity, we should distinguish between the primary issue and secondary issues. Whether or not we're morally responsible is the primary issue, the starting-point, while the question of what conditions are necessary and sufficient for an agent to be morally responsible, is secondary inasmuch as explanations are attempts to ground it–unless it is groundless (i.e. uncaused). Casting the issue in terms of freewill gets us off on the wrong foot. We need to recenter the debate. 

Because "freedom" is a cipher, both sides explicate the concept of freedom. For instance, libertarians unpack that in terms of ultimate sourcehood and/or ability to access to alternate possibilities, &c, while Fischer appeals to regulative control and guidance control. 

But in that event, "freedom" does no work. That's just a verbal placeholder. It's the underlying categories that do the work. So why not  drop the ambiguous or opaque word "freedom" and go straight to examination of the categories?

An exception would be the relation between freedom and foreknowledge, where the primary issue isn't moral responsibility, but something else. 

Wednesday, June 28, 2017

Abortion is wrong even if the fetus is not a person

https://arcdigital.media/abortion-is-wrong-even-if-the-fetus-is-not-a-person-bd7552841366

Voodoo zombies

i) One argument for human evolution is encephalization: the development of larger brains over time. That's also used to date the emergence of humans. Skulls with a braincase large enough to accommodate a human-sized brain. 

ii) Now, it may indeed be legitimate to infer brain size from cranial size, although oftentimes we only have skull fragments. Indeed, there's a difference between brain size and internal complexity.

iii) But suppose, for the sake of argument, that we discovered a perfectly preserved hominid corpse in a peat bog. Suppose conventional dating techniques indicate that the specimen is 200K years old. Suppose it had an intact brain the size of a human brain. And it had the same internal complexity of a human brain. And suppose the specimen was bipedal with opposable thumbs. 

A theistic evolutionist or old-earth creationist might conclude that dates to at least 200K BC. But is that a valid inference?

iv) The reservation I have with that inference is the assumed correlation between mind and brain. This raises the perennial issue of the mind/body problem. There's some evidence that's consistent with the proposition that the brain produces the mind. Stock examples include how alcohol, hallucinogens, traumatic head trauma, brain cancer, brain atrophy, and Alzheimer's temporarily or permanently impair cognition. 

v) However, even that's consistent with the receiver/filter model of the mind/body problem propounded by thinkers like William James, Aldous Huxley, and Mario Beauregard.

vi) In addition, there's multiple lines of philosophical and empirical evidence indicating that the mind is essentially independent of the brain (e.g. terminal lucidity, apparitions of the dead, veridical near-death or out-of-body experiences, demonic possession, psi, the hard problem of consciousness). 

vii) If true, this means the correlation between a human brain and human intelligence is contingent rather than necessary. Suppose, for the same of argument, that a human mind requires a brain of sufficient complexity to express itself. (Even that is questionable. John Lorber's hydrocephalic patients seem to present a counterexample.)

Even on that assumption, there's an asymmetry between minds and brains. In principle, you could have a living human body with a functioning human brain without human intelligence. Unless the body has a soul, it will lack human intelligence, regardless of the condition of the brain. Like a voodoo zombie. 

At best, the brain is a necessary but insufficient condition for the presence or expression of human intelligence. And that's an overstatement. There can be mindless brains and brainless minds. 

For a body to possess or express human intelligence requires ensoulment. A body must be paired with a soul. The mind uses the brain. 

Unlike some theistic evolutionists, I'm not suggesting that God produced humans by the ensoulment of preexisting primates. My point, rather, is that even as a matter of principle, you can't date the origin of the human species based on fossil skulls. You couldn't even do that if you had an intact brain, as per my hypothetical peat bog specimen. 

viii) Some people might complain that my objection is special pleading. I'm raising an objection that renders my position unfalsifiable. 

But it's not ad hoc. To begin with, the inference is simply fallacious inasmuch as the evidence for physicalism is equally consistent with substance dualism (v). In addition, we have positive evidence that the mind is not reducible to the brain. Indeed, situations in which the mind functions independent of the brain (vi).

The ballot box, the jury box, and the cartridge box

http://reason.com/archives/2014/07/22/how-crazy-negroes-with-guns-he