Tuesday, November 15, 2016

Was Jesus bisexual?

In fact, if you take literally the statement that Jesus was tempted in all things just as we are, (Heb: 4:15), then we have to conclude that the Bible teaches that Jesus was bisexual. He experienced temptation both to hetersexual sin and to homosexual sin, so he had to have been bisexual. QED. 

That poses an intriguing dilemma for Arminian hermeneutics. They keep telling us that "all means all". So this becomes a reductio ad absurdum of their hermeneutical stance. 

1 comment:

  1. There is an obvious solution for them, which I think is a true description of many Arminians. The solution is this: you start with the assumption that "all" means what the Arminian says it means about the relevant verses, but which excludes this verse. Then you say that it is "obvious" what all means in the relevant verses because "all means all". So you in effect justify a belief formed not on the basis of evidence by the post hoc rationalization that statements of the form "phi means phi" are true. Then you say that Hebrews 4:15 is not an assumption with which you began, and that passage - unlike the rest of them - needs to actually be interpreted carefully.