tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-6789188.post119288772607576778..comments2024-03-27T17:15:37.606-04:00Comments on Triablogue: Got questions?Ryanhttp://www.blogger.com/profile/17809283662428917799noreply@blogger.comBlogger2125tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-6789188.post-56776107584868082872018-05-01T20:06:08.027-04:002018-05-01T20:06:08.027-04:00i) It's a fine definition which has no purchas...i) It's a fine definition which has no purchase on my position.<br /><br />ii) Valid divorce allows for remarriage. <br /><br />iii) For that matter, even invalid divorce can allow for remarriage. By that I mean, if your spouse initiates the divorce without due cause, you are free to remarry without incurring sin. stevehttps://www.blogger.com/profile/16547070544928321788noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-6789188.post-66601969424051282072018-05-01T20:00:20.575-04:002018-05-01T20:00:20.575-04:00This is a great post - succinct answers to common ...This is a great post - succinct answers to common questions. One thing, though:<br /><br />"John Frame defines "lust", not as sexual attraction, but forbidden desire. Although that's a good definition, it doesn't select for what's forbidden. To insist that masturbation is lustful in the forbidden sense is circular inasmuch as that's the very question at issue."<br /><br />Is there a definition that you think is more suitable? Or does it matter, given your other arguments?<br /><br />Also, on the question of divorce, do you think a valid divorce allows for remarriage?Anonymousnoreply@blogger.com